chemistry mcq with answers

chemistry mcq with answers
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN CHEMISTRY
Chemistry Test and Chemistry Quiz
1. A solution has H ion concentration 0.0005 M. Its pOH is
(a) 8.279
(b) 12.285
(c) 10.699
(d) 13.335
Ans. (c)

2. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min when was 50% of the reaction
Completed?
(a) 24 min
(b) 16 min
(c) 8 min
(d) 48 min Ans. (b)

3. Cyano benzene has
(a) 7 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds
(b) 7 sigma and 5 pi bonds
(c) 12 sigma and 6 pi bonds
(d) 13 sigma and 5 pi bonds
Ans. (d)

4. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular mass of X is
(a) 4.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 32.0
(d) 64.0
Ans. (a)

5. When phosphorus reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Disproportionation
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

6. The complete combustion of CH4 gives:
(a) CO + H2
(b) CO + N2
(c) CO2 + H2O
(d) CO + N2O
Ans. (c)

7. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

8. Which one of the following is the true covalent oxide of iodine?
(a) I2O4
(b) I2O5
(c) I2O7
(d) I2O9
Ans. (b)

9. Which of the following two are isostructural?
(a) XeF2, IF2
(b) NH3, BF3
(c) CO3-2, SO3-2
(d) Pd5, ICl5
Ans. (a)

10. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
(a) mer [Co (NH3) 3C13]
(b) cis [PtCl2(NH3 )21
(c) cis K2[PtC12Br2J
(d) Na2 [COC14]
Ans. (c)

11. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

12. Propane on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

13. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

14. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

15. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)
9. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following electrolyte has least molar conductivity?
(a). BeCl2
(b) BC13
(c) LiC1
(d) NaCl
Ans. (b)

11. Gold number is associated with
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) Purple of cassius
(c) Protective colloid
(d) Amount of pure gold
Ans. (c)

12. H2O2 is
(a) Poor polar solvent than water
(b) Better polar solvent than H20
(c) Both have equal polarity
(d) Better polar solvent but its strong auto oxidizing ability limits its use as such
Ans. (c)

13. Sodium metal is kept under
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Alcohol
(c) Water
(d) Acids
Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Coal gas
(b) Water gas
(c) Producer gas
(d) Carbon dioxide gas
Ans. (a)

15. Which out of the following is called sugar of lead?
(a) Pb(NO3) 2
(b) PbC12
(c) PbCO3 ‘Pb (OH) 2
(d) Pb(CH3COO) 2
Ans. (d)

16. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

17. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

18. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

19. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

20. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)

21. Among the following the weakest base is:
(a) H-
(b) CH-
(c) CH3O
(d) cl-
Ans. (d)

22. If 2.0 g of a radioactive isotope has half-life of 20 h, the half-life of 0.25 g of the same substance is
(a) 20h
(b) 80h
(c) 5h
(d) l0h
Ans. (a)

23. K02 is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarine because it:
(a) Eliminates moisture
(b) Absorbs CO2
(c) Produces ozone
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

24. On heating quick lime with coke in an electric furnace we get:
(a) Ca and CO2
(b) CaCO3
(c) CaO
(d) CaC2
Ans. (d)

25. The material used in warfare in making smoke screens for military purposes is:
(a) PH3
(b) PC15
(c) SiCl4
(d) NH3
Ans. (a)

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free online chemistry test

free online chemistry test
Free online chemistry practice test for all entrance exams
Free Online Chemistry Sample Paper
Free online chemistry practice test for PMT PET

1. How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cc of 0.1 N HCl (Na = 23)

(a) 60g

(b) 6g

(c) 4g

(d) 40g

Ans. (b)

2. Order of reaction is decided by:

(a) molecularity

(b) pressure

(c) temperature

(d) mechanism of reaction s well as relative concentration of reactants

Ans. (d)

3. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is:

(a) polymerisation

(b) condensation

(c) addition

(d) substitution

Ans. (b)

4. The simplest way to check whether a system is colloidal is by:

(a) electrodialyis

(b) finding out particle size

(c) Tyndall effect

(d) Brownian movement

Ans. (c)

5. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by:

(a) small cation and large anion

(b) large cation and small anion

(c) large cation and large anion

(d) small cation and small anion

Ans. (a)

6. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO₂^- is:

(a) sp³

(b) sp²

(c) sp

(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

7. The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is:

(a) 0.46 N

(b) 0.23 N

(c) 2.3 N

(d) 4.6 N

Ans. (d)

8. A 500 g tooth-paste sample has 0.2kg fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluoride in terms of ppm level?

(a) 250

(b) 200

(c) 400

(d) 1000

Ans. (c)

9. At 30°C the solubility of Ag₂CO₃ (K _sp = 8 x 10^-12) would be greatest in one litre

of:

(a) 0.05 M Na₂CO₃

(b) 0.05 M AgNO₃

(c) pure water

(d) 0.05 M NH₃

Ans. (d)

10. Lithopone, a substitute of white lead is:

(a) BaSO₄ + ZnS

(b) BaSO₄ + ZnO

(c) PbCO₃. Pb(OH)₂

(d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

11. In Nessler’s reagent the active ion is:

(a) Hg⁺

(b) Hg²⁺

(c) [HgI]^2-

(d) [Hg1₄]^2-

Ans. (d)

12. The product obtained by means of HgSO₄ + H₂SO₄ from 1-butyne would be:

(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

(b) CH₃CH₂COCH₃

(c) CH₃CH₂CHO + HCHO

(d) CH₃CH₂COOH + HCOOH

Ans. (b)

13. The increasing order of acidity among phenol, p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is:

(a) phenol, p-methyl phenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol

(b) p-methyl phenol, phenol, in-nitrophenol, – p-nitrophenol

(c) p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

(d) m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

Ans. (b)

14. Bismarck brown is example of:

(a) phthalein dye

(b) azodye

(c) anthraquinone dye

(d) nitro dye

Ans. (b)

15. Which of the following species planar shape?

(a) CH₃^-

(b) CH₃⁺

(c) BF₄^-

(d) SiH₄

Ans. (b)

16. Mond’s process is used for preparing:

(a) Ni

(b) Co

(c) NH₃

(d) H₂SO₄

Ans. (a)

17. The most abundant salt of sodium is its:

(a) chloride

(b) nitrate

(c) sulphate

(d) phosphate

Ans. (a)

18. A smuggler could not carry gold by depositing iron on the gold surface since:

(a) gold is denser

(b) iron rusts

(c) gold has higher reduction potential than iron

(d) gold has lower reduction potential than iron

Ans. (c)

19. The ionic product of water will increase if:

(a) pressure is decreased

(b) H⁺ ions are added

(c) OH^- ions are added

(d) temperature is increased

Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?

(a) Na⁺

(b) Mg²⁺

(c) O2^2-

(d) C1^-

Ans. (d)

21. From which of the following t-butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium bromide?

(a) HCHO

(b) CH₃COCH₃

(c) CH₃CHO

(d) CO₂

Ans. (b)

22. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is:

(a) Angular

(b) Linear

(c) Tetrahedral

(d) T-shaped

Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following metal is found in gun metal, monel metal and brass alloy?

(a) Zn

(b) Hg

(c) Fe

(d) Cu

Ans. (d)

24. According to Lewis the ligands are:

(a) Acidic in nature

(b) Basic in nature

(c) Neither acidic nor basic

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

25. Diamond is a:

(a) Ionic crystal

(b) Covalent crystal

(c) Metallic crystal

(d) Molecular crystal

Ans. (b)

26. An aqueous solution freezes at— 0.186°C, what is the elevation in boiling point?

(k_f.= 1.86, k_b 0.512)

(a) 0.186

(b) 0.512

(c) 0.05 12

(d) 0.86

Ans. (c)

27. The reference electrode is made from which of the following?

(a) ZnC1₂

(b) CuSO₄

(c) Hg₂Cl₂

(d) HgCl₂

Ans. (c)

28. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO₂ released at SW on heating 9.85 g of BaCO₃(at. wt. of Ba = 137) will be:

(a) 1.12L

(b) 0.84L

(c) 2.24 L

(d) 4.06 L

Ans. (a)

29. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600 nm is:

(a) 5×10¹⁴Hz

(b) 5×10¹⁷Hz

(c) 2.5×10¹⁴Hz

(d) 2.5xl0⁷Hz

Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum numbers of 4 d electrons?

(a) 4, 3, 2, + 1/2

(b) 4, 2, 1, 0

(c) 4, 3, – 2, + 1/2

(d) 4, 2, 1, – ½

Ans. (d)

31. A mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by:

(a) Sublimation

(b) Crystallization

(c) Filtration

(d) Distillation

Ans. (a)

32. Number of gram of oxygen in 322 g of Na2SO4-10H20 is:

(a) 20.8

(b) 224

(c) 208

(d) 22.4

Ans. (b)

33. During the extraction of silver which of the following is formed?

(a) Na[Ag(CN) ₂]

(b) Na₂ [Ag(CN) ₂]

(c) Na₂4[Ag(CN) ₂]

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

34. The electronic configuration of Sc₂₁ is:

(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d2

(b) Is2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4sO 3d3

(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1 3d2

(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d1

Ans. (d)

35. The oxidation state of Fe in brown complex [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO⁴ is

(a) +3

(b) +4

(C) +2

(d) +1

Ans. (c)

Ans. (b)

36. The bond order in N⁺₂ is:

(a) 50.5

(b) 11.2

(c) 5.6

(d) 30.2

Ans. (a)

37. When benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO³ and H₂SO⁴ the products is:

(a) 2, 4-dinitrobehzoic acid

(b) 3-nitrobenzoic acid

(c) 1, 3-dinitrobenzoic acid

(d) 2-nitrobenzoic acid

Ans. (b)

38. Which is correct statement about proton?

(a) Proton is the nucleus of deuterium

(b) Proton is alpha particle

(c) Proton is ionised hydrogen molecule

(d) Proton is ionised hydrogen atom

Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following conditions are necessary in preparation of aryl halides?

(a) Low temperature

(b) Absence of sunlight

(c) Presence of halogen carrier

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

40. Which of the following is formed as an intermediate in the conversion of ethanol to ethylene in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄?

(a) CH₃CH₂OSO₃H

(b) CH₃CH

(c) (CH₃CH₂)₂SO₄

(d) CH₃CH

Ans. (b)

41. An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C3H60. It undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with HC1 it gives ‘B’ of molecular formula C H1O ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

(a) propanal and mesitylene

(b) propanone and mesityl oxide

(c) propanone and 2, 6-dimethyl-2, 5 heptadien-4-one

(d) propane and mesitylene oxide

Ans. (c)

42. TUPAC name of CH₂ =CHCN is:

(a) ethenenitrile

(b) vinyl cyanide

(c) cyanoethene

(d) 2-propenenitrile

Ans. (c)

43. Which of the following halogen is purified by sublimation?

(a) F₂

(b) C_l2

(c) Br₂

(d) I₂

Ans. (d)

44. Which one has the lowest boiling point?

(a) NH₃

(b) PH₃

(c) AsH₃

(d) SbH₃

Ans. (b)

45. Proteins on heating with concentratedHNO3 produce yellow colour, this test is known as

(a) Millon’s test

(b) Xanthoprotein test

(c) Hopkin’s test

(d) Ninhydrin test

Ans. (b)

46. The compound which is not coloured is:

(a) K₄Fe(CN)₆

(b) K₃Fe(CN)₆

(c) Na₂CdCI₄

(4) Na₂CuCl₄

Ans. (c)

47. Reduction of nitrobenzene by alkaline sodium arsenite forms

(a) aniline

(b) azobenzene

(c) hydrazobenzene

(d) azoxybenzene

Ans. (d)

48. The types of impurities present in bauxite ore are:

(a) Fe₂O₃

(b) Cu₂O

(c) CO₂

(d) SiO₃

Ans. (a)

49. When calcium salts of dicarboxylic acids are subjected to dry distillation, a cyclic ketone having one carbon atom less is formed. This is called

(a) Clemmensen’s reduction

(b) Dieckmann’s method

(c) Wislicenus method

(d) Freund’s method

Ans. (c)

50. The physical adsorption of gases on the solid surface is due to:

(a) covalent bond

(b) hydrogen bond

(c) ionic bond

(d) van der Waals’ forces

Ans. (d)

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CBSE Class 7 th Model test paper Free online and Download

CBSE Class 7 th Model test paper Free online and Download

SUBJECT – SCIENCE
CLASS – VII
Marks: 100
Time: 2 1/2 Hrs
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. All questions are to be attempted
2. All questions of section A carries 1 mark each, section B carries 2 marks each, section C carries 3 marks each and section D carries 5 marks each.

SECTION – A

I Answer in one word / name the following: – (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Insect eating plants.
2. Parts of black sheep which gives wool.
3. Two regions of the earth with extreme climatic conditions.
4. Acid found in spinach.
5. Best top soil for growing plants.
6. The average weather taken over a long time.
7. Any natural indicator.
8. Rotting dead matter in the soil.
9. Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented
10. A dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from the sky to the ground.

II Fill in the blanks: (1 x 5 = 5)
1. HCL + NAOH =_________ + __________
2. The lion tailed macaque (Beard ape) is found in rain forests of ___________ Ghats.
3. Wind is _____________ air.
4. High speed winds accompanying a cyclone can damage ___________and telephones.
5. Teeth which fall off at ages between six to eight are called __________ teeth.

SECTION – B (2 X 15 = 30)
I Answer all the following questions:-
1. Give two examples each of conductors and insulators of heat?
2. Name different parts of alimentary canal?
3. What do you understand by galvanisation?
4. What are Villi? What is their function?
5. Why holes are made in hanging banners and hoardings?
6. Describe the function of heart?
7. Write two ways to prevent soil erosion?
8. Complete chemical equations:-

(a) Glucose ( in Presence of  oxygen)  __________+ Water + ____________

(b) Glucose (Absence of  oxygen ) __________ + Water + ____________
Oxygen
9. Why do we get instant energy from glucose?
10. Write two differences between clayey and sandy soil?
11. Name the species from which angora wool is obtained? It is found in which region?
12. When baking soda is mixed with lemon juice, bubbles are formed with the evolution of gas. What type of change is it?
13. Why an antacid tablet is taken when we suffer from acidity?
14. What do you understand by ‘rumination’?
15. Why do we wear woollen clothes in winter?

SECTION – C

I Answer the following: – (3 x 10 = 30)
1. Write any three differences between clinical and laboratory thermometer?
2. Name part of the plant;-
a) Which absorb water from soil?
b) Which makes food
c) Tiny pores through which leaves respire.
3. Define a) Shearing b) Sericulture.
4. Give technical term for:-
a) Muscular floor of chest cavity.
b) Air tubes of insects.
c) The opening through which we inhale.
5. Differentiate between acids and bases (any three)?
6. Explain what will happen if there are no platelets in the blood?
7. Write three adaptations of polar bear?
8. List the similarities and differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration (any three)?
9. Why rusting of iron object is faster in coastal areas than in deserts?
10. Define transpiration. Does it serve any useful function in the plants?(any two)

SECTION – D
(5 x 5 = 25)
I Answer the following:-
1. Write two differences in the following:
a) Autotrophs and Heterotrophs (with examples)
b) Parasite and Saprotroph.
2. How do the elephant living in a tropical rainforest adapt itself (any five)?
3. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of human respiratory system?
4. List five precautions that we should take care while staying in a cyclone hit area?
5. Draw a neat and labelled schematic diagram of blood circulation?
OR
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of soil profile?

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Solved Question Bank CBSE PMT

Solved Question Bank CBSE PMT

1. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?
(1) Wheat
(2) Funaria
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Ustilago
Ans. 4

2. T.O. Diener discovered a
(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Free infectious RNA
(3) Free infectious DNA
(4) Infectious protein
Ans. 2

3. Mannitol is the stored food in
(1) Gracillaria
(2) Chara
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus
Ans. 4

4. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Equisetum
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Marchantia

Ans:2

5. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
(1) Floral characters
(2) Evolutionary relationships
(3) Morphological features
(4) Chemical constituents
Ans:2

6. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(4) Ctenophores
Ans. :3

7. Peripatus is a connecting link between
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Ans. :4

8. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
(1) Guppies and hag fishes
(2) Lampreys and eels
(3) Mackerals and Rohu
(4) Lampreys and hag fishes
Ans. :4

9. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is
(1) slimymucus
(2) excretory fluid
(3) coelomic fluid
(4) haemolymph
Ans. :3

10. Plasmodesmata are
(1) Connections between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(3) Locomotory structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

11. Synapsis occurs between
(1) two homologous chromosomes
(2) a male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) spindle fibres and centromere
Ans. :1

12. Middle lamella is composed mainly of
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Calcium pectate
Ans.:4

13. Cytoskeleton is made up of
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosicmicrofibrils
Ans.:1

14. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in
(1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

Ans. :4

15. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in
(1) tip of the nose
(2) vertebrae
(3) nails
(4) ear ossicles
Ans. :1

16. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Glandular
(4) Ciliated
Ans. :4

17. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is real in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate

Ans. :2

18. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called
(1) Capping
(2) Splicing
(3) Tailing
(4) Transformation
Ans. :2

19. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ans. :3

20. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?
(1) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant
Ans. :2

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Word download list verbs three forms English Grammar CBSE English

Word download list verbs three forms English Grammar
CBSE English Resources Free Download

base	past	past participle
Abide	Abided	Abided/Abidden
Alight	Alit/Alighted	Alit/Alighted
Arise	Arose	Arisen
Awake	Awoke	Awoken
be	was/were	been
bear	bore	born
Beat	Beat	Beaten
Become	Became	Become
beg	begged	begged
begin	began	begun
Behold	Beheld	Beheld
bend	bent	bent
Bet	Bet	Bet
Bid	Bade	Bidden
Bid	Bid	Bid
Bind	Bound	Bound
bite	bit	bitten
bleed	bled	bled
blow	blew	blown
break	broke	broken
breed	bred	bred
bring	brought	brought
Broadcast	Broadcast/Broadcasted	Broadcast/Broadcasted
build	built	built
burn	burnt/burned	burnt/burned
burst	burst	burst
Bust	Bust	Bust
buy	bought	bought
call	called	called
cast	cast	cast
catch	caught	caught
choose	chose	chosen
Clap	Clapped/Clapt	Clapped/Clapt
clean	cleaned	cleaned
cling	clung	clung
Clothe	Clad/Clothed	Clad/Clothed
come	came	come
cost	cost	cost
Creep	Crept	Crept
cry	cried	cried
Cut	Cut	Cut
Dare	Dared	Dared
Deal	Dealt	Dealt
die	died	died
Dig	Dug	Dug
dive	dove/dived	dived
Do	Did	Done
Draw	Drew	Drawn
Dream	Dreamt/Dreamed	Dreamt/Dreamed
Drink	Drank	Drunk
Drive	Drove	Driven
Dwell	Dwelt	Dwelt
Eat	Ate	Eaten
end	ended	ended
Fall	Fell	Fallen
Feed	Fed	Fed
Feel	Felt	Felt
Fight	Fought	Fought
Find	Found	Found
Fit	Fit/Fitted	Fit/Fitted
Flee	Fled	Fled
Fling	Flung	Flung
Fly	Flew	Flown
Forbid	Forbade	Forbidden
Forecast	Forecast/Forecasted	Forecast/Forecasted
Foresee	Foresaw	Foreseenddd
Foretell	Foretold	Foretold
Forget	Forgot	Forgotten
Forgive	Forgave	Forgiven
Forsake	Forsook	Forsaken
Freeze	Froze	Frozen
Get	Got	Got/Gotten
Give	Gave	Given
Go	Went	Gone
Grind	Ground	Ground
Grow	Grew	Grown
Hang	Hung/Hanged	Hung/Hanged
Have	Had	Had
Hear	Heard	Heard
Hide	Hid	Hidden
Hit	Hit	Hit
Hold	Held	Held
Hurt	Hurt	Hurt
Inlay	Inlaid	Inlaid
Input	Input/Inputted	Input/Inputted
Interlay	Interlaid	Interlaid
Keep	Kept	Kept
kiss	kissed	kissed
Kneel	Knelt/Kneeled	Knelt/Kneeled
Knit	Knit/Knitted	Knit/Knitted
Know	Knew	Known
Lay	Laid	Laid
Lead	Led	Led
Lean	Leant/Leaned	Leant/Leaned
Leap	Leapt/Leaped	Leapt/Leaped
Learn	Learnt/Learned	Learnt/Learned
Leave	Left	Left
Lend	Lent	Lent
Let	Let	Let
Lie	Lay	Lain
Lie	Lied	Lied
light	lit/lighted	lit/lighted
live	lived	lived
look	looked	looked
Lose	Lost	Lost
love	loved	loved
Make	Made	Made
Mean	Meant	Meant
Meet	Met	Met
Melt	Melted	Molten/Melted
Mislead	Misled	Misled
Mistake	Mistook	Mistaken
Misunderstand	Misunderstood	Misunderstood
Mow	Mowed	Mown
Overdraw	Overdrew	Overdrawn
Overhear	Overheard	Overheard
Overtake	Overtook	Overtaken
Pay	Paid	Paid
play	played	played
Preset	Preset	Preset
Prove	Proved	Proven/Proved
Put	Put	Put
Quit	Quit	Quit
Read	Read	Read
Rid	Rid/Ridded	Rid/Ridded
Ride	Rode	Ridden
Ring	Rang	Rung
Rise	Rose	Risen
Rive	Rived	Riven/Rived
Run	Ran	Run
Saw	Sawed	Sawn/Sawed
Say	Said	Said
See	Saw	Seen
seek	sought	sought
Seek	Sought	Sought
Sell	Sold	Sold
Send	Sent	Sent
Set	Set	Set
Sew	Sewed	Sewn/Sewed
Shake	Shook	Shaken
Shave	Shaved	Shaven/Shaved
Shear	Shore/Sheared	Shorn/Sheared
Shed	Shed	Shed
shine	shined/shone	shined/shone
Shoot	Shot	Shot
Show	Showed	Shown
Shrink	Shrank	Shrunk
Shut	Shut	Shut
sin	sinned	sinned
Sing	Sang	Sung
Sink	Sank	Sunk
Sit	Sat	Sat
Slay	Slew	Slain
Sleep	Slept	Slept
Slide	Slid	Slid/Slidden
Sling	Slung	Slung
Slink	Slunk	Slunk
Slit	Slit	Slit
Smell	Smelt/Smelled	Smelt/Smelled
Sneak	Sneaked/Snuck	Sneaked/Snuck
Soothsay	Soothsaid	Soothsaid
Sow	Sowed	Sown
Speak	Spoke	Spoken
Speed	Sped/Speeded	Sped/Speeded
Spell	Spelt/Spelled	Spelt/Spelled
Spend	Spent	Spent
Spill	Spilt/Spilled	Spilt/Spilled
spin	spun	spun
Spin	Span/Spun	Spun
Spit	Spat/Spit	Spat/Spit
Split	Split	Split
Spoil	Spoilt/Spoiled	Spoilt/Spoiled
Spread	Spread	Spread
Spring	Sprang	Sprung
Stand	Stood	Stood
stay	stayed	stayed
Steal	Stole	Stolen
Stick	Stuck	Stuck
Sting	Stung	Stung
Stink	Stank	Stunk
Stride	Strode/Strided	Stridden
Strike	Struck	Struck/Stricken
String	Strung	Strung
Strip	Stript/Stripped	Stript/Stripped
Strive	Strove	Striven
study	studied	studied
Sublet	Sublet	Sublet
Sunburn	Sunburned/Sunburnt	Sunburned/Sunburnt
Swear	Swore	Sworn
Sweat	Sweat/Sweated	Sweat/Sweated
Sweep	Swept/Sweeped	Swept/Sweeped
Swell	Swelled	Swollen
Swim	Swam	Swum
Swing	Swung	Swung
Take	Took	Taken
talk	talked	talked
Teach	Taught	Taught
Tear	Tore	Torn
Tell	Told	Told
Think	Thought	Thought
Thrive	Throve/Thrived	Thriven/Thrived
Throw	Threw	Thrown
Thrust	Thrust	Thrust
tie	tied	tied
Tread	Trod	Trodden
Undergo	Underwent	Undergone
Understand	Understood	Understood
Undertake	Undertook	Undertaken
Upset	Upset	Upset
Vex	Vext/Vexed	Vext/Vexed
wait	waited	waited
Wake	Woke	Woken
wash	washed	washed
Wear	Wore	Worn
Weave	Wove	Woven
Wed	Wed/Wedded	Wed/Wedded
Weep	Wept	Wept
Wend	Wended/Went	Wended/Went
Wet	Wet/Wetted	Wet/Wetted
Win	Won	Won
Wind	Wound	Wound
Withdraw	Withdrew	Withdrawn
Withhold	Withheld	Withheld
Withstand	Withstood	Withstood
Wring	Wrung	Wrung
Write	Wrote	Written

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Posted in: CBSE , English , English Vocabulary , Learning English