Showing posts with label Civil engineering. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Civil engineering. Show all posts

Monday, May 16, 2011

civil engineering objective questions


Civil Engineering Through Objective type Questions
civil engineering objective questions
Objective Type Questions & Answers In Civil Engineering For Competitions & Interviews
civil engineering objective questions free Online test
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Bricks lose their strength by 25% when soaked in water.
2. Minimum crushing strength of brick in buildings should be 35 kg/cm
3. The size of modular type bricks is 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm including mortar thickness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: D
2. The correct statement in respect of a centrifugal pump is
A The discharge varies in direct proportion to speed as also square of the diameter
B. The head varies as the square of the speed as also of the square of the diameter
C. The discharge varies in inverse proportion to speed as also the cube of the diameter
D. The power varies as the head and square of the diameter.
Ans: B
3. Consider the following statements about theodolites:
1. Transit theodolite is atheodolite in which the telescope can be transited.
2. EDMI is a theodolite fitted with a micrometer for measurements.
3. A double reading theodolite is one in which diametrically opposite segments of the graduated circle are brought into view and the readings are averaged.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: A
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Sensitivity of a natural soil deposit cannot be less than 1.0.
2. A saturated loose sand deposit liquefies when water flows through it in upward direction under critical hydraulic gradient.
3. A quick clay has a very high sensitivity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
Ans: A
5. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
A. inverse square of the diameter
B. inverse of the diameter
C. first power of its diameter
D. inverse of the fluid viscosity
Ans: D
6. Consider the following statements
1. At shrinkage, limit, th soil remains fully saturated.
2. The shear strength of all soils at liquid limit is the same.
3. The shear strength of all soils at plastic limit is the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: A
7. Refraction error is the least in case of
A. Stadia tacheometry
B. Tangential tacheómetry
C. Subtense bar tacheometry
D. Omnimeters
C
8. In all reaction maximum efficiency is obtained if the
A. Guide vane angle is 90°
B. Blade angle is 90° at the inlet
C. Blade angle is 90° at the outlet
D. Angle of the absolute velocity vector at the outlet is 90°
Ans: D
9. Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be the reason for cracking of
A. only floors is the building
B. walls and roof in the building
C. beams and columns in the building
D. only balcony in the building
Ans: D
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Drain values are provided at elevated, or higher, points to remove accumulated air.
2. Reflux valve allows flow in one direction only.
3. Drain valves are provided at low points to remove silt and other deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Ans: C
11. Match List-I with List-TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type of survey)
A. Traffic volume study
B. Speed and delay study
C. Spot-speed study
D. Multiple character Studies
List II (Method lintrurnent)
1. Works spotinterview method
2. Doppler radar
3. Floating car method
4. Automatic vehicle counter and classifier
5.. Electronic detector
Code:
A B C D
A. 5 3 2 4
B. 1 3 2 5
C. 5 2 3 4
D. 1 2 4 3
Ans: A
12. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum value of group index for a soil be taken as zero.
2. The maximum possible value of group index for a soil is twenty.
Which of the above staternent is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
13. A light-house is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. Distance between the station and the light house is 60 km. The height of the light house is
A. 243.5 m
B. 4.0 M
C. 287.4 m
D 5.4 m
Ans: A
14. Consider the following statements:
The disadvantages of employing steel pipes in conveyance and distribution of water are, they
1. cannot withstand high negative pressures or vacuums that may be created in them, especially the combined effects of vacuum and external loads of backfill and traffic .
2. are easily affected by acidic or alkaline waters and even atmospheric agencies may produce adverse effects on them.
3. Cannot be used for high pressures.(Generally not used for pressure above 7kg/cm)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: B
15. Consider the following statements:
The moment of momentum equation in fluid dynamies can be used
1. To find the torque exerted on sprinklers by water.
2. To determine the force in a flow passage, when stream changes direction! magnitude.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
16. Garret’s diagrams are used to
A. separate base flow from total runoff
B. correct inconsistency in rainfall data
C. determine reservoir capacity
D. design channels
Ans: D
17. Consider the following statements:
The critical value of Reynolds number at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent depends upon
1. Turbulence in ambient flow
2. Surface roughness.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? . .
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only ,
D. Both 1 and 2
Ans: D
18. In a transit theodolite, error due to eccentricity
of verniers is eliminated by reading
A. both verniers
B. both right swing and left swing
C. ‘right and left faces
D. different parts of main scale
Ans: A
19. An aeroplane is cruising’ at a speed of 800 km/ h at an. altitude where the air temperature is 0°C. The flight Mach number at this speed is nearly
A. 1.3
B. 0.67
C. 0.25
D. 2.4
Ans: B
20.Light reflecting devices used to guide the driver along the proper alignment are called
A. Rumble strips
B. Delineators
C.Attenuators
D. Litter bin
Ans: B

Civil Engineering Assertion and Reason type Objective Questions fully Solved


Civil Engineering Assertion and Reason type Objective Questions fully Solved
Objective Solved Problems For UPSC IES Civil Engg
Civil Engineering exam Questions and Answers
IES question papers: Civil Engineering
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R) You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct .explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false ,
D. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion (A): Energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump is mainly caused by the large eddies in turbulence.
Reason (R) : Large eddies transport the fluid, over large distances, thus causing the mixing effect of turbulence.
Ans : C
2. Assertion (A): An economical channel section gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area.
Reason (R) : An economical channel section has smooth surface for reduced friction
.
Ans : C
3. Assertion (A) : The possibility of piping failure in earth dams is more if black cotton soil is the foundation material.
Reason (R) : The highly expansive black cotton soils are the most common soils wherever Basalt rock is present.
Ans : B
4. Assertion (A) : The movement of two blocks of wood welted with hot glue requires greater, and greater effort as the glue is drying up.
Reason (R) : Viscosity of liquids varies inversely with temperature.
Ans : A
5. Assertion (A): In the border strip method of irrigation, the size of the strip depends on soil characteristics. slope of the land and discharge.
Reason (R) : Border strip method is a controlled type of subsurface irrigation method.
Ans : C
6. Assertion (A) : Reynolds number of a fluid flow is indicative of the relative dominance of the effects of momentum transfer between adjacent layers of the flow over the viscous stresses.
Reason (R) : For flow at high Reynolds numbers, the velocity profile is logarithmic
.
Ans : B
7. Assertion (A) : A seepage passing through the body of an earth dam affects the weight of dam.
Reason (R) : The specific weight of submerged soil is not dependent on the porosity of soil.
Ans : B
8. Assertion (A) : In a strainer type tube well, strainer pipes are surrounded by wire mesh. Reason (R) : This prevents the fine particles from entering the well pipe.
Ans : A
9. Assertion (A) : Break point chlorination ensures a residual of free available chlorine. Reason (R) : A super high chlorine dose inactivates the pathogens in a very short time.
Ans : B
10. Assertion (A) : Flow net is dependent on the permeability of soil through which flow is taking place.
Reason (R) : The flow net is useful in finding the discharge.
Ans : B
11. Assertion (A) : At the same voids ratio desiccated clay is stronger than saturated clay.
Reason (R) : Desiccation impacts (induces) pre-compressive forces in the soil structure.
Ans : A
12. Assertion (A) : Lining a canal is always beneficial and economical.
Reason (R) : The seepage losses are greatly reduced and extra water is available for irrigation.
Ans : D
13. Assertion (A) : Worn out (smooth) tyres offer higher friction factors on dry pavements than new tyres with treads well intact.
Reason (R) Reduced pneumatic pressure is held in tubes which carry smooth tyres over them.
Ans : A
14.Assertion (A) : In plane table photogrammetry, the areas to be mapped are taken from either end of a base line.
Reason (R) The position of the detail point with reference to the base line is obtained by intersection of rays drawn to it from each end of the base.
Ans : A
15. Assertion (A): Tie bars are used in cement concrete slabs across the longitudinal joints. Reason (R) : Tie bars are designed to act as load transfer devices.
Ans : C
16. Assertion (A) : Traffic Smog is likely to occur in regions where vehicle mileage is considerable and there is a low incidence of sunlight.
Reason (R) : Traffic Smog is caused by the reaction of oxides of nitrogen and some of the hydrocarbons in presence of bright sunlight.
Ans : C
17. Assertion (A) : In an intersection design, the relative speed is dependent on the absolute speed of intersecting vehicles and the angles between them.
Reason (R) : When the angle of merging is small, the relative speed will be high
.
Ans : B
18. Assertion (A) : The pandrol clip is a fit and forget type of fastening and is made from silicone manganese spring steel bar and heat treated.
Reason (R) : The pandrol clip has a point contact and causes indentation on the rail due to heavy toe load and small contact area.
Ans : B
19. Assertion (A) : In the overall design and layout of a harbour (or port), differentiation
is made between entrance’ and ‘channel’ depths.
Reason (R) : The ‘scend’ (or pitching) of a vessel may be larger at the entrance to the channel than within the channel.
Ans : A
20. Assertion (A) : The paved area adjacent to the terminal building and hangers used for loading and unloading, servicing and parking of aircraft is called as apron.
Reason (R) : The size of the apron depends on the size and number of gate positions and the way the gate positions are arranged.
Ans : B

Technical Aptitude sample paper Coal india Management Trainee exam :Civil Engg


Technical Aptitude sample paper Coal India Management Trainee exam :Civil Engg
Free online Practice test CIL MT jobs Civil Engineering
Technical Aptitude Civil Engg for Management jobs in  PSU’s  of India
1. Match -List-I with. List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I                                            List-II
(Principle)                                       (Effect)
A. Here Shaw flow                     1. Surface of equal pressure
B. Stokes law                              2. Settling of fine particles
C. Hagen-Poiseuille flow            3. Laminar flow between parallel plates
D. Pascal’s law                            4. Laminar flow in tubes
Code:
A       B       C        D
(a)    2        3       4         1
(b)    3        2       4         1
(c)    2        3       1         4
(d)    3        2       1         4
Ans. (b)
2. A fast centrifugal pump impeller has which of the following?
(a) Forward facing blades
(b) Radial blades
(c) Backward facing blades
(d) Propeller type blades
Ans. (c)
3. Consider the following statements:
An air vessel is fitted on the suction side of a reciprocating pump to
1. achieve higher speed without separation
2. reduce work in overcoming frictional resistance
3. avoid excessive vibration
4. have uniform discharge
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
4. Water is supplied from a height of 2.8 m at the rate of 35 1ps to a hydraulic ram which delivers 2 1ps to a height of 28m above the ram. What is the Rankine’s efficiency?
(a) 58%
(b) 55%
(c) 52%
(d) 44%
Ans. (a)
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I                                                 List II
(Type of Power House)                             (Feature)
A. Tidal Plant                        1. Utilizes reversible turbines and improves utilization factor
B. Storage Plant                    2. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has poundage to
improve load factor
C. Pumped Storage Plant      3. Head- on turbine varies with time cyclically
D. Run-of-river Plant            4. Utilizes annually average flow with storage.
Code:
A       B       C        D
(a)    3        4       1         2
(b)    3        2       1         4
(c)    1        2       3         4
(d)    1        4       3         2
Ans. (a)
6. A pressure gauge reads 57.4 kPa and 80 kPa respectively at heights of 8 m and 5 m fitted on the side of a tank filled with liquid. What is the approximate density of the liquid in kg/m3?
(a) 393
(c) 1179
(b) 768
(d) 7530
Ans. (b)
7. What is the momentum thickness of the boundary layer with velocity distribution
u/ U=y/γ
(a) γ/6
(b) γ/2
(c) 3γ/2
(d) 2γ
Ans. (a)
8. In model similarity, if gravitational and inertial forces the only important forces, then what is the discharge ratio?
(a) Lr3/2
(b) Lr1/2
(c) Lr5/2
(d) Lr1/3
Ans. (c)
9. When discussing most efficient section of flow into open channels, what is the perimeter P as a proportion of depth of flow h (i.e., P/h) for
(i) a triangular section, and
(ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively? V
(a) 2.25, 283
(b) 2.25, 3.15
(c) 2.83, 3.15
(d) 2.83, 3.46
Ans. (d)
10. What i the V energy loss through a length of pipe from which all the charge is taken out uniformly along its length, with respect to the case when all the discharge is delivered to the end?
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 1/2
Ans. (b)
11. The permissible tractive force in an erodible channel depends upon which of the following?
1. Angle of repose of the material
2. Particle size
3. Sediment content of water
4. Wetted perimeter of channel
Select the-correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c)  1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
12. Which one of the following is correct? Semi-module outlets are those outlets in which
(a) discharge gets affected by the change in water level of field channel
(b) discharge gets affected by the change in water level of the distributing channel but not with the change in water level of field channel
(c) discharge is independent of water levels in the distributing channel and the field channel
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. For calculating the maximum flood discharge in an alluvial stream, which is the best suited relation?
(a) v Î± R2/3 S1/3
(b) v Î± R2/3 S1/2
(c) v α R1/2 S1/2
(d) v α D0.64
Ans. (d)
14. For water supply to a medium town, what is the daily variation factor?
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3
(d) 3.5
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following factors has the maximum effect on figure of per capita demand of water supply of a given town?
(a) Method of charging of the consumption
(b) Quality of water
(c) System of supply-intermittent continuous
(d) Industrial demand
Ans. (d)
16. Kilpich equation is used to determine which one of the following?
(a) Run-off from a given rainfall
(b) Base time V of a unit hydrograph
(c) Time of concentration in run-off hydrograph
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
17. From the analysis of rainfall data at a particular station, it was found that a rainfall of 400 mm had a return period, of 20 years. What is the probability of rainfall equal to or greater than 400 mm occurring at least once in 10 successive years?
(a) (0.95)10
(b) 1- (0.95)10
(c) 1 – (0.05)10
(d) (0.05)10
Ans. (b)
18. Inconsistency of rainfall data can. checked by which one of the following?
(a) Normal Ratio method
(b) Mass Curve method
(c) Double-mass Curve method
(d) Depth duration frequency curve
Ans. (c)
19. What is the chemical symbol for ice as per UNESCO terminology?
(a) H8O4
(b) H2O
(c) H6O3
(d) H4O2
Ans. (b)
20. Maximum possible discharge from a small catchment corresponding to particular rainfall intensity is independent of which one of the following?
(a) Soil moisture conditions
(b) Drainage characteristics of catchment
(c) Area of the catchment
(d) Duration of the rainstorm
Ans. (d)
21. Which one of the following is considered as the thermophilic range of sludge digestion?
(a) 60°C to 70°C
(b) 50°C to 57°C
(c) 29°C to 40°C
(d) 20°C to 30° C
Ans. (b)
22. Consider the following statements:
In context of sludge volume Index (SVI)
1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in cu. cm.) of the activated sludge for one gram of dry weight of the sludge
2. a higher value of SVI indicates a light and fluffy sludge which is not easily settleable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
23. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?
(a) Green algae
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Red algae
(d) Brown algae
Ans. (b)
24. An industry has a sewage treatment plant which produces sludge with a moisture content of 98%. With the solid content remaining the same, the sludge is thickened so that the moisture content now is 96%. If the original quantity of sludge is P, what is the quantity of the thickened sludge?
(a) 0.98 P
(b) 3 P/4
(c) 2 P/3
(d) P/2
Ans. (d)
25. In a well operating activated sludge process unit, what is the value of sludge volume
index?
(a) < 50
(b) 100 — 150
(c) 200 — 300
(d) > 300
Ans. (b)
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I                                          List-II
(Predominance of Compounds)      (pH range)
A. Monochloramie                   1. Below pH 4.4
B. Dichloramine                       2. Over pH 7.5
C. Nitrogen trichloride             3. Between pH5 to 6.5
Code:
A        B         C
(a)    1        2          3
(b)    2        3          1
(c)    3        1          2
(d)    3        2          1
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following are the advantages of cast-iron pipe for its use in water supply?
1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonable extent
2. very easy to join the pipes
3. Easy to transport
4.. Longer life
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
28. Which one of the following valves is se1don used in water distribution systems because of high head loss characteristics?
(a) Butterfly
(b) Globe
(c) Plug
(d) Sluice
Ans. (c)
29. Sonoscope used for which one of the following?
(a) Checking the accuracy of water meters
(b) Regulating the fire hydrants
(c) As a replacement of venturimeter for discharge measurement
(d) Detection of leakage in underground water mains
Ans. (d)
30. In the design consideration of sewerage system, the sewers must have which one of the following?
(a) Maximum velocity of flow
(b) Only 50 per cent of maximum velocity of flow
(c) Minimum velocity of not less than cleansing velocity of flow.
(d) High pressure at all times
Ans. (c)
31. Which one of the following conditions of automobile gives maximum unburned hydrocarbons?
(a) Idling
(b) Cruise
(c) Acceleration
(d) Deceleration
Ans. (a)
32. Electrostatic precipitator I1ost useful for which one of the following industries?
(a) Tannery
(b) Hydroelectric power generation
(c) Thermal power generation
(d) Textile factory
Ans. (c)
33. What will be the resultant decibel level when two sources make noise of equal decibels?
(a) Decibel level will be the same
(b) Decibel level will increase by 3 decibels
(c) Decibel level will decrease by 3 decibels
(d) Decibel level will be equal to the sum of decibels of the two sources
Ans. (b)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I                                      List- II
(Air pollutant)                               (Effect)
A. CO                                               1. Acid rain
B. CO2 2. Acute toxicity
C. SO3. Ozone liberation
D. NO                                               4. Greenhouse effect
Code:
A   B   C   D
(a)   4    3   1    2
(b)   4    3   2    1
(c)   2    4   1    3
(d)   3    4   1    2
Ans. (c)
35. Biological magnification of pesticides takes place through which of the following?
(a) Population pyramids
(b) Hydrologic cycle
(c) Food chains
(d) Air cycle
Ans. (c)
36. What does the presence of excess nitrates in river water indicate?
(a) Recent pollution of water with sewage
(b) Past pollution of water with sewage
(c) Intermittent pollution of water with sewage
(d) No pollution of water with sewage
Ans. (a)
37. What is the depth of water seal in the traps?
(a) < 2.5 cm
(b) 2.5 — 7.5 cm
(c) 7.5 — 12.5 cm
(d) Not less than 15 cm
Ans. (b)
38. Bangalore and Indore process of composting are which of the following?
(a) Both anaerobic processes
(b) Both aerobic processes
(c) Anaerobic process and aerobic process, respectively
(d) Aerobic process and anaerobic process, respectively
Ans. (c)
39. A solid waste sample has been segregated and one of the components has been subjected to elemental analysis. The result of analysis in percent by mass revealed C (40%), H(6.0%), O(44%),. N (0.3%). What is the likely waste component?
(a) Food waste
(b) Paper and cardboard waste
(c) Plastic waste
(d) Leather waste
Ans. (a)
40. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following? .
(a) Silica
(b) NO
(c) Lead
(d) Cadmium
Ans. (a)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. Pore pressure parameter A is a constant for a soil.
2. The shear strength of soil is a function of the effective stress in the soil and not of the total stress in the soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I                                       List-II
(Equipment)                                (Use)
A. Hydrometer                  1. Determination of shear parameters
B. Plate load test set up     2. Determination of specific gravity
C. Pyconometer                 3. Determination of bearing capacity of soils
D. Direct shear apparatus  4. Grain size distribution tests for clays
Code:
A       B       C        D
(a)    2        1       4         3
(b)    4        3       2         1
(c)    2        3       4         1
(d)    4        1       2         3
Ans. (b)
43. A vertical cut is to be made in saturated clay with C=15kN/m2, ?=0,andY=20kN/m3. What is the theoretical depth to which the, clay can be excavated without side collapse?
(a) 6 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 2.5m
(d) 3 m
Ans. (d)
44. In seismic exploration method, velocities V1 and V2 were 600 m/s and 4000 m/s. The distance corresponding to the break point of velocities was 30m. Based on this detail, what is the depth of overburden?
(a) 1l.5 m
(b) 12.5 m
(c) 12.9 m
(d) 13.2 m
Ans. (c)
45. Consider the, following statements in respect of static cone penetration test:
1. The cone used has ‘an apex angle of 60° and base, area of 10 cm2
2. This test gives a continuous record of cone resistance.
Which of the statements- given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below he lists:
List-I                                                        List-II
(Soil Classification Symbol)                               (Soil property)
A. GW                                                         1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 6
B. SW                                                          2. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 4
C. ML                                                          3. Soil having low plasticity
D. CL                                                           4. Soil having low compressibility
Code:
A   B    C   D
(a)    1    2    4    3
(b)    2    1    3    4
(c)    2    1    4    3
(d)    1    2    3    4
Ans. (b)
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Soil)                                                                (Type)
A. Fine sand                                                   1. Expansive soil
B. Silt                                                             2. Coarse grained soil
C. Peat                                                            3. Fine grained soil
4. Organic soil
Code:
A          B             C
(a)       3           2             1
(b)       4           3              1
(c)       3           1              2
(d)       2           3              4
Ans. (d)
48. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I                                                          List-II
(Symbol)                                                      (Soil)
A. ML                                                            1. Silty sand
B. SM                                                             2. Inorganic silt with large compressibility
C. Pt                                                               3. Inorganic silt with small compressibility
D. MB                                                            4. Soil with high organic content with high
compressibility
Code:
A      B      C      D
(a)      3       2       4      1
(b)      4      1        3      2
(c)      3      1        4      2
(d)      4      2        3      1
Ans. (c)
49. Which one of the following is correct? In laboratory compaction tests, the optimum moisture content of soil decreases
(a) with increase of compaction energy and with decrease of coarse grains in the soil
(b) with decrease of compaction energy and with increase of coarse grains in the soil
(c) with increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil
(d) with decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in, the soil
Ans. (c)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Coefficient of consolidation normally increases with decreasing liquid limit of clay.
2. The larger the value of the coefficient of consolidation, the longer it takes for full consolidation to occur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)