staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology

staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology
SAMPLE SOLVED PAPER OF STAFF NURSE IN HEALTH SERVICES DEPT
SOLVED ESI STAFF NURSE SOLVED QUESTION PAPER
staff nurse modal test paper solved dsssb exam

1. Whenever a non-sense codon formed in a polypeptide chain then it leads to:
(a) Addition of some specific thymine and cytosine bases
(b) Addition of some specific guanine and cytosine bases
(c) Termination of polypeptide chain
(d) Addition of some specific guanine and adenine bases
Ans. (c)

2. Direction of replication in mitochondrial DNA will be:
(a) Bidirectional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Replication absent
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)

3. Pepsin is activated by:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Trypsin
Ans. (c)

4. The m-RNA is directly available translation without processing in:
(a) Green algae
(b) Bacteria
(c) Polysiphonia
(d) Chara
Ans. (b)

5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Maximum DNA is present in cytoplasm than in nucleus
(b) Maximum RNA is present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(C) Maximum DNA present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (c)

6. Which-of following is example of steroid hormone?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Corticotrophin
(c) Insulin
(d) Testosterone
Ans. (d)

7. M and N blood groups are of importance in:
(a) blood transfusion
(b) Medico legal tests
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

8. The pace-setter in the heart is called:
(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) Sino arterial node
(c) Papillary muscle
(d) Artio-ventricular node (AVN)
Ans. (d)

9 What are the most diversed molecules m the cell?
(a) Lipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (b)

10. Kingdom Protista can be defined as:
(a) Microscopic multicultural organisms with – one or many nuclel, they don’t form embryo
(b) Microscopic, unicellular organisms with one or more nuclei, they do not form embryo
(c) Macroscopic, multi- unicellular organisms having only a large nucleus and no embryo formation in them
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)

11. A gorilla like man has huge hands and legs this – is due to abnormal secretion of:
(a) Pituitary FSH
(b) Pituitary LII
(c) Pituitary Gil
(d) Thyroid
Ans. (c)

12. Chloragogen cells serve for:
(a) Respiration
(b) Excretion
(c) Storage of glycogen and fat
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)

13. Myxotrophic nutrition is found in:
(a) Mango
(b) Euglena
(c) Cara
(d) All Protozoa
Ans. (b)

14. Formation of embryo sac from diploid cells of ovule is known as:
(a) Apogamy
(b) Apospory
(c) Amphimtxis
(d) Apimixis
Ans. (b)

15. Cytoplasm of Amoeba proteus not contain
(a) Ectoplasm and endoplasm
(b) Endoplasm and mitochondria
(c) ER and ribosomes
(d) Mesosomes
Ans. (d)

16. In the body blood clotting is prevented by:
(a) Heparin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Starch
Ans. (a)

17. Fermentation is general term for the:
(a) Anaerobic degeneration of glucose or other organic nutrients to obtain energy
(b) An -aerobic degeneration of protein
(c) Formation of formic- acid
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)

18. Function of SSE proteins during DNA replication is:
(a) Unwinding of DNA
(b) Denaturation of DNA
(c) Formation of RNA strands
(d) Stabilizing separated DNA strands
Ans. (d)

19. The net result of inversion is
(a) Gain of some inverted genes
(b) Neither a gain nor a loss in genes
(c) Loss of some genes
(d) Transfer of genes to non-homologous chromosome.
Ans. (b)

20. Amniotic egg is present:
(a) Hydra
(b) Reptiles
(c) Mammals
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)

21. Building block of DNA are:
(a) Nucleosomes
(b) Nuclesides
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Nucleotides
Ans. (d)

22. The receptor for water soluble hormones are located on target cell surface then- for fat soluble hormone receptors. are:
(a) SV also on cell surface
(b) In cytosol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Does not have cell receptor
Ans. (b)

23. There is one difference between DNA replication of prokaryotes and eukaryotes:
(a) Eukaryotes contain DNA pol III while it is absent in prokaryotes
(b) The rate of replication fork movement in eukaryotes is lower then prokaryotes
(c) Many origin of replication present in eukaryotes while only one in prokaryotes
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)

24. In micturition
(a) Ureter contracts
(b) Ureter relaxes
(C) Urethra relaxes
(d) Urethra contracts
Ans. (c)

25. Maximum peptidoglycan is present in which of the following cell?
(a) Gram negative bacterial cell
(b) Gram positive bacterial cell
(c) PPLO
(d) PSTV
Ans. (b)

26. Blood platelets are the source of:
(a) Fibrogen
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Thromboplastin
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (c)

27. In man the largest vertebra is:
(a) Caudal
(b) Sacral
(c) Lumber
(d) Cervical
Ans. (c)

28. Which of the following microtubule is mainly responsible for chromosome movement during mitotic division?
(a) Astral microtubules
(b) Polar microtubules
(c) Kinetochore microtubule
(d) Kinetochore
Ans. (c)

29. Earthworm appear brown due to the presence of:
(a) Chloragogen cells
(b) Chloragosomes
(c) Porphyrin
(d) Porin
Ans. (c)

30. Some human babies show “Cri-du-chat” syndrome due to:
(a) Pseudo dominance
(b) Dominance
(c) Duplication
(d) Translocation
Ans. (a)

31. Bacteria do not contain enzyme:
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Fructose-1, 6 bisphosrhate
(c) Fructose 2, 6 bisphosrhate
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (c)

32. Thiamine Pyrophosphate plays important role in the cleavage of bonds:
(a) Carboxylic group
(b) Carbonyl group
(c) Aldehydes group
(d) Keto group
Ans. (b)

33. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex vertebrates is strongly inhibited by:
(a) Ample of ATP, Co-A and NAD+
(b) Long chain fatty acids
(c) ATP and acetyl Co-A
(d) AMP, Co-A, NAD+
Ans. (d)

34. Nourishment in Trypnasoma is:
(a) Autotrophy
(b) Chemotrophy
(c) Osmotrophy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)

35. Cross over products are the result of:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Duplication
(c) Replication
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (a)

36. Tay sach’s disease is due to deficiency of enzyme:
(a) ?-N-acetyIhexosaminidase
(b) Tyrosinase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenate
Ans. (a)

37. Parkinson disease is due to deficiency of:
(a) Acetyl chlorine
(b) Serotonin
(c) Dopamine
(d) Tyrosine
Ans. (c)

38. Different proteins that catalyze the same reaction are called:
(a) Homoprotein
(b) Alloproteins
(c) Alloenzyme
(d) Isozymes
Ans. (d)

39. Chondriods are also Known as:
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Mesosornes
(c) Spherosomes
(d) Peroxisomes
Ans. (b)

40. Each okazaki fragment in bacteria contains nucleotides approximately:
(a) 1000 to 2000
(b) 12100 to 120,000
(c) 5-10
(d) 150-200
Ans. (a)

41. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) The plasma membrane of bacteria shows fluid mosaic pattern
(b) Trans membrane proteins act as carriers or permeate to carry on selective transportation of nutrients
transportation
(c) Bacterial plasma membrane provides a specific sit& at which the single circular chromosome is attached
(d) All statement are correct
Ans. (d)

42. Exchange of chromosomal parts between two non-homologous chromosomes is known as:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Reciprocal translocation
(c) Exchange
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)

43. During binary fission Amoeba prophase stage shows following character:
(a) Amoeba becomes elongated and nuclear membrane does not disappear
(b) Amoeba becomes globular and chromosomes show pairing
(c) Amoeba becomes rounded and unclear membrane also disappear
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

44. Haversian canals are formed by the active division of:
(a) germinal-epithelium
(b) peritoneum
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(d) corpora cavernosa
Ans. (a)

45. Lathyrism, a disease caused by consumption of khesridal is characterized by:
(a) Retardation of body growth precious puberty and real dysfunctions.
(b) Reproductive failure, susceptibility to diabetes
(c) Mental retardation, failure of reproduction.
(d) Thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils and gross skeletal deformation
Ans. (d)

46. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(a) Lymphocyte
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Basophil
(d) Neutrophil
Ans. (a)

47. Lactoflavin (sensitizer) found in:
(a) Eye spot
(b) Paraflagellar body
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)

48. Which amino acid have the capability to absorb light at 280 nm?
(a) Glycine
(b) Cysteine
(c) Leucine
(d) Tryptophan
Ans. (d)

49. The cyanobacteria secrete peptides that cause the formation of hepatic tumour:
(a) Microcystins and nodularins
(b) Pyroglutamyl
(c) Glutathione
(d) Ghenyl isothiocyanate
Ans. (a)

50. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of:
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) folic acid
(c) Niacin
(d) Riboflavin
Ans. (c)

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Maharashtra Gramin Bank Previous Year Officers Solved Paper

Maharashtra Gramin Bank Previous Year Officers Solved Paper

Here you can get Maharashtra Gramin Bank  Officers Previous Year  Solved Paper

1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States?
(A) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka
(C) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following is /are NOT the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
(1) A risk Capital fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial Institutes.
(2) Allocation for defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 Crore.
(3) Several new scheme to be introduced for providing social security to the people in unorganized sectors.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (B) The amount allocated for for defence in the budget 2008-09 is Rs. 105600 Crore which is higher than that in the Budget 2007-08.

3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the minimum support price of Paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that Price ?
(A) Rs. 800/quintal
(B) Rs. 900/quintal
(C) Rs. 950/quintal
(D) Rs. 1200/quintal
(E) none of these
ANS (D) The purchase price recommended by the CACP fOR The Crop Year 2008-09 for general category Rice is Rs. 1000 per quintal and for A- Grade is Rs. 1050 per quintal.

4. Wchich of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ?
(1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions.
(2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market.
(3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All (1),(2) & (3)
ANS (B)

5. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at which of the following levels? Approximately—
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
ANS (E) As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at 81.4% .

6. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to gross domestic product (Tax-GDP)in 2007-08 ? Approximately —
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10-%
(D) 11.5%
(E) 12.5%
ANS (E)

7. Which of the following companies has got “Navratna Status” recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bnak Ltd.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

8. Who amongst the following established the “Anandvan” a rehabilitation centre for Leprocy patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Bapu
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

9. Thaksin Shinawatra’s name is associated with which of the follwing countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) Soth Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

10. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier “Gorshkov” to India for its defense services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

11. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the life time achievement award and is provided the status of the cabinet minister . Which of the following Stae Govt. has honoured him in this manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

12. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the “Kishore Kumar Award” given by the Madhya Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

13.The Under -19 Cricket world cup 2008 was won by which of the following contries ?
(A) Malysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
ANS (B) India defeated South Africa in the final match by seven runs.

14. Who amongst the following was the chief guest in India’s Republic Day Function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nikolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

15. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently ?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

16. Which of the following Staes tops in primary ,upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

17. The 11th five year paln wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and allied activities to which of the following levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

18. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

19. World Day of Water is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

20. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One Day International Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Saurav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
ANS (E)

21. Why was the name of Anatolyevic Medvedev in news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the president of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the prime minister of Russia
(C) He is the new president of South Korea
(D) He is the new prime minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

22. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in —
(A) Bhuj Ganganagar
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

23. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games will be orgsnized in –
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Quala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (E) The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010 in Singapore.

24. Who amongst the following has taken over as the president of Serbia ?
(A) Raul castro
(B) Stefen Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Jose Manual Ramos Horta
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

25. The general election in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its parliament for a period of —
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
ANS (C)

26. Luciana Aymar who aws adjudged the world hockey player 2007 is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

27. which of the following State Government has decided to provide ownership rights to Tribal over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

28. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit Institutions in States ?
(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangrajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

29. As we all know the Chinese economy is a booming economy and its export have played a significant role in it. What was the share of China’s Export as compared to its GDP in 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

30. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating ——-
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Mharashtra
(D) Guajarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
ANS (E)

31. Gagan Nrang , who got a silver medal in an International Championship held in Munich,is a/an —
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton Player
(C) Chess Player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Fifle Shooter
ANS (E)

32. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up with an overall corpus of Rs. 500 Crore each. These funds- financial inclusion fund and financial inclusion technology funds are to be set up by the initial contribution made by the –
(A) SIDBI,NABARD & UTI
(B) NABARD,UTI & RBI
(C) Govt. of India,NABARD & RBI
(D) SIDBI,Govt. of India & IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

33. As per the Govt. Policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to Coopeartive Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies/organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agriculture cost & price
(B) Nationa Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Natioanl Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

34. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as “Reverse Mortage” . The scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in consideration ?
(A) Youngers who have just started earning
(B) Defense personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

35. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigen-mediated ceasefire Agreement to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

36. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from ist February,2008 . What is “Short Selling” ?
(1) Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading
(2) Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were alloted to the trader.
(3) Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

37. Prime minister os India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed agreement with the sama. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
(1) Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is invited to China.
(2) India to host joint millitary exercise in 2008.
(3) India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (C)

38. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has asked the Mutual Fund Industry to stop “MISSELLING” their scheme to investors. What is misselling of Products ?
(1) Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
(2) When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risk involved in investing in mutual funds.
(3) When agents invest somebody’s money in mutual funds without their knowledge , it is called Misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

39. The sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchsange keeps on changing positively and negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contributed for his sudden change in the same ?
(1) Higher GDP growth
(2) Continuous foreign funds flow
(3) High volume of forex reserves
(4) Only 1 Recession in USA
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Both 3 & 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1,2 ,3 & 4
ANS (B)

40. The USA , as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards ‘recession’. What happens when an economy goes in the grip of ‘recession’?
(1) GDP growth slow down
(2) People lose their jobs
(3) Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants star pouring in .
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

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Allahabad Bank’s Solved Question For Clerical (S.W.O.A)Recruitment Project Exam

Download Solved  Allahabad Bank  Clerk Exam Paper With Answer

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

One day Nandu rode his horse to the village fair. On his way back he met Somendra, the merchant. The merchant was a crafty man, ready to do anything to earn some money. The villagers knew this. In fact no one knew what trick he would be up to next. Now, Nandu was poor and had no one in the world to call his own except a beautfiul, white horse. He loved it more than anything else in the world. The merchant had his eye on the horse for a long time and tried to think of a way to get it for himself. Seeing Nandu, the merchant thought, “Nandu is a simpleton. Let me see if I can trick him out of his horse. “So he said to Nandu, “You live all alone. How do you manage ? What does a young boy like you need with a horse ? Sell it to me and I shall make you rich in return.” Nandu replied, “No I don’t want to sell my horse.”

But the merchant refused to give up so easily. He offered Nandu more money. Finally, when the offer reached five hundred gold coins, Nandu paused and said, “Five hundred gold coins seems like a good price. But I have a condition. If you agree to it, I shall give you my horse.” What is it ?” The merchant asked impatiently. “Give me the money right now and I shall give you my horse when I have given you ten lashes,” said Nandu. “Is that all ?” asked the merchant. He could easily bear ten lashes. After all he would resell the horse for over a thousand gold coins in the market. He would take twenty lashes for such a gain. He agreed instantly. He ran home and got the money for Nandu and brought along his whip as well. Nandu counted the money carefully. He then took the whip and the lashes fell on the merchant’s back in quick succession. By the eighth lash the merchant was almost in tears but he told himself that there were only two lashes to go and the horse would be his ! The merchant held his breath waiting for the final lash. But Nandu had mounted his horse and was riding off. “Wait !” shouted the merchant in anger. “What about the tenth lash ? Where are you going with the horse ? We had a deal.”

Nandu stopped and said, “I agreed to give you the horse only after I had given you ten lashes. But it is upsetting my horse. I’ll give you the last lash later. Till then goodbye !” “Come back you cheat !” the merchant shouted. But the crowd that had gathered around agreed with Nandu. A deal was a deal. Till the last lash was given the horse could not belong to the merchant. Nandu rode away richer by five hundred gold coins and Somendra waited in vain for several days for the final lash which never came !

1. Why did the merchant offer to buy Nandu’s horse ?
(A) He was very fond of horses and Nandu’s horse was rare breed
(B) It was his way of helping Nandu who was poor
(C) The horse would be useful for carrying goods to the market
(D) He hated Nandu and wanted to deprive him of something he loved
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) Nandu was an orphan
(2) The marchant was very persevering
(3) The merchant was fonder of Nandu’s horse than Nandu was
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Both (1) & (2)
(D) All (1), (2) & (3)
(E) None of these

3. Why did Nandu set the condition of giving the merchant ten lashes ?
(A) To discourage the merchant from buying his horse
(B) To demonstrate how painful a whipping was so that the merchant would never hit the horse
(C) To bargain with the merchant to offer more money
(D) To outwit the merchant who was trying to cheat him
(E) None of these

4. Why did the bystanders take Nandu’s side in the argument ?
(1) They hoped that Nandu would give them a reward from the five hundred gold coins he had earned.
(2) They were sure that the merchant would ill treat the horse and wanted to prevent that from happening.
(3) They knew that Nandu would be miserable without his horse of whom he was very fond.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Both (1) & (3)
(D) Only (3)
(E) None of these

5. What reason did Nandu cite for not giving the merchant the final lash ?
(A) He was tired and not in the mood
(B) He realised that the merchant was in great pain and took pity on him
(C) He was following the advice of the people around
(D) His horse was distressed by the whipping
(E) He had changed his mind about selling his horse

6. Which of the following can be said about Nandu ?
(1) He was very cunning.
(2) He needed moeny.
(3) He was cruel to people but loved animals.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) & (2)
(C) Both (2) & (3)
(D) All (1), (2) & (3)
(E) None of these

7. What made the merchant agree to Nandu’s strange condition for buying the horse ?
(A) He wanted to show Nandu how brave he was
(B) The thought of the profit he would make on selling the horse
(C) The fear that Nandu would raise the price of his horse otherwise
(D) He did not think that Nandu would actually whip him
(E) None of these

8. Why did Nandu consider selling his horse to the merchant ?
(A) He had no real use for the horse
(B) The merchant’s offer was more than what the horse was worth
(C) He had not managed to sell it at the village fair
(D) He could no longer afford to feed his horse
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following best describes the merchant’s reputation in the village ?
(A) He was enterprising and had made a lot of money
(B) He was dishonest and would do anyting to get what he wanted
(C) He would squander his money on things he liked
(D) He was generous and helped the less fortunate
(E) He was successful because he was courageous and stubborn

Answers from 1-9 are as follows,

1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B)

Directions—(Q. 10–11) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. return
(A) reject
(B) profit
(C) settle
(D) replace
(E) exchange

11. paused
(A) halted
(B) relaxed
(C) ended
(D) stuck
(E) interval

Answers from 10-11 are as follows,

10. (E)
11. (A)

Q-Directions—Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

12. gathered
(A) dissolved
(B) collected
(C) dispersed
(D) melted
(E) distributed

Answers for 12 question are as follows,

12. (C)
Directions—(Q. 13–17) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word wh
ich is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

13. We are now facing stiff (A) competing (B) from foreign companies manufacturing (C) similar (D) products. All correct (E)

14. I have mentioned (A) this case to indicate (B) how deliberate (C) it will be to achieve our goal. (D) All correct (E)

15. Today, thank (A) to our support (B) she has managed (C) to purchase (D) her own house. All correct (E)

16. As per your request (A) this is a detail (B) list of our basic (C) requirements. (D) All correct (E)

17. The final decision (A) of whether (B) to go ahead (C) or not does not rest (D) with the manager. All correct (E)

Answers from 13-17 are as follows,

13. (B) , 14. (C) , 15. (A) , 16. (B) , 17. (E)

Directions—(Q. 18–25) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Initially, the Grameen Bank did not …(18)… to get involved with the education of its borrowers. But as time went by, they began to feel the …(19)… for it. Most of the borrowers had no formal education …(20)… the ability to read and write. The borrowers had difficulty in expanding their business. They …(21)… to be able to keep accounts, read …(22)… about business, health, new ways of farming etc. They …(23)… their children to school and their children in turn helped their parents to keep accounts, read instructions and …(24)… else needed to be read.

But this is not enough for the future. So the bank has set out to make sure that their borrowers …(25)… a hundred per cent literacy rate with five years.

18. (A) meant
(B) deserve
(C) plan
(D) intent
(E) realise

19. (A) concern
(B) need
(C) duty
(D) relevance
(E) value

Answers from 18 to 19 are as follows

18. (D) 19. (B)

Section-II: English Paper

20. (A) except
(B) having
(C) besides
(D) unless
(E) without

21. (A) tried
(B) must
(C) knew
(D) wanted
(E) discovered

22. (A) knowledge
(B) awareness
(C) information
(D) fact
(E) circular

23. (A) sent
(B) enrolled
(C) insisted
(D) urge
(E) encourage

24. (A) above
(B) nothing
(C) anything
(D) whatever
(E) something

25. (A) acquire
(B) qualify
(C) collect
(D) reaching
(E) fulfilling

Answers from 20-25 are as follows,

20. (A),21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. He has visited many places all over the city looked at the perfect location to set up his factory.
(A) looking out
(B) looking for
(C) looking after
(D) looked forward to
(E) No correction required

27. No traffic will be allowed in this area since the minister visit scheduled today.
(A) minister’s visit
(B) minister is visiting
(C) minister’s visit is
(D) visit of the Minister
(E) No correction required

28. Medical treatment here is very expensive that they had to sell off their land to pay for it.
(A) quite expensive and
(B) too expensive for
(C) so expensive but
(D) more expensive
(E) No correction required

29. To be successful it is important to know why your failure in the past and ensure that it doesn’t happen again.
(A) why you had failed
(B) because you have failed
(C) that your failure
(D) where you were failed
(E) No correction required

30. These hand woven shawls are much in demand in many European countries.
(A) were much demand
(B) are lots of demand
(C) demanded much
(D) will be lot to demand
(E) No correction required

Answers from 26-30 are as follows,

26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is not error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Some of our staff is worried (A) / that as soon as (B) / the project is over they (C) / will lose their jobs. (D) No error (E)

32. If you decide to hold (A) / the function in Kolkata (B) / not much of us (C) / will be able to attend. (D) No error (E)

33. In case you need five people (A) / to run a branch you (B) / should be selected (C) / ten since some may leave. (D) No error (E)

34. Although he approached (A) / many private businessess to invest (B) / in his printing business (C) / nobody of them was interested. (D) No error (E)

35. How can you give up (A) / this job when you are (B) / just about to be (C) / appointed for General Manager ? (D) No error (E)

Answers from 31-35 are as follows,

31. (A), 32. (C), 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (E).
Directions—(Q. 36-40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. Such was his down to earth nature.
2. He placed the album before the President saying, “Sir, please do us the honour of attending the prize distribution ceremony of our Institute.
3. Hearing this, the man asked the photographer to take a photo of him placing a shawl around the President’s shoulders as a momento.
4. He entered the room with a photographer, holding an album and a shawl.
5. The President glanced through it and said, “I shall not be able to make it but may God bless the children.”
6. The man then left and I angrily pointed out that he had taken the shawl with him, to which the President replied, “I do not need it. Perhaps he does.”

36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

37. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

38. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

40. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) Sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Answers from 36-40 are as follows,

36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (E) 40. (A)

Computer General Awareness

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)

2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)

12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D

20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C

21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B

23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B

27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

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