Showing posts with label UPSC IES. Show all posts
Showing posts with label UPSC IES. Show all posts

## Thursday, May 19, 2011

### exam prep MCQ Economics model Test paper for UGC DSSB RAS UPSC Exams

exam prep MCQ Economics model Test paper for UGC DSSB RAS UPSC Exams
This Economics model test paper/Sample paper is only for those students who have studied Economics in Graduation level / BA Level ,as the questions are bit tough and not intended as general GK questions
testing exam preparation

exam material
macro economics for test prep Like
UGC NET Exam
RAS Exam
DSSB PGT TGT Test
UPSC Exams
PSC Exams of Various Public Service Commissions
1.Keynesian Liquidity Preference theory explains
the:
(a) operation of the money market in an economy.
(I interaction between the real and monetary sectors.
(c) motivation of a speculator.
(d) process of adjustment in money and capital markets for bringing about changes in the interest rate.
Ans: a
Q.2. Which one of the following conditions is assumed by Euler in his adding up theorem?
Elasticity of substitution is:
(a) equalto zero.
(b) greater than zero but less than one.
(c) greater than one.
Ans: b
Q. 3. The cars used by the police department of the government for patrolling should be treated as:
(a) final goods because these are sold by business sector to government.
(b) consumers goods because these are not re- sold by the government.
(c) capital goods because these add to the capital formation in the country.
(d) intermediate goods because police services are consumed through the use of these cars.
Ans: d
Q.4 Which one of the following consumption functions corresponds to the income multiplier, R= 4?
(a) C=24+0.5 Y
(b) C=240+0.25Y
(c) C= 24+ 0.55Y
(d) C = 240 + 0.75Y
Ans: d
5. Given that
GNP at market prices = Rs. l92866 crores
Consumption of fixed capital = Rs. 13371 crqres
Net factor income from abroad = Rs-975 crores
the NDP at market prices will be:
(a)Rs. 178520 crores
(b) Rs. 207212 crores
(c)Rs. 180470 Crores
(d) Rs. 205262 crores
Ans: a
6. In the theory of investment decision the most appropriate Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the one which makes the:
(a) net present value, the maximum.
(b) gross present value, the maximum.
(c) net present value, zero.
(d) gross present value, zero.
Ans: c
Q. 7. In Keynes General Theory, investment and savings are brought to equality primarily through changes in the:
(a) rate of interest.
(b) income velocity of money.
(c) national income
(d). level of prices.
Ans: c
Q. 8 During a recession, consumers typically react to falling incomes by:
(a) increasing the fraction of consumption devoted to durable goods.
(b) reducing the fraction of durables quickly before incomes fall further.
(c) reducing the worn-out durables quickly before incomes goods.
(d) reducing the fraction of non-durables and services more quickly than purchases of durables.
Ans: b
Q. 9. Consider the following statements:
1. Points to the left of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
2. Points to the right of the LM curve indicate excess demand for money.
3. ?oints to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of money.
4.. Points to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
Of these statements
(a)2 and 4 are correct
(b)1 and 3 are correct
(c)2 and 3 are correct
(d)1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a
Q.10 . Suppose, MPC falls. The IS curve shifts to the left. Then what happens ceteris paribus?
(a) The level of equilibrium becomes lower
(b) The level of equilibrium becomes higher
(c) There is no change in equilibrium
(d) Only the rate of interest becomes lower
Ans: a
Q 11. The author of employment multiplier is:
(a) Lord Beveridge
(c) R. V Kahn
(b) J. M . Keynes
(d) J.R. Hicks
Ans: c
Q. 12 In a two sector economy, the saving and investment functions are as follows:
S=—10+0.2Y
I= —3+0.1 Y
What will be the equilibrium level of income?
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 100
Ans: a
Q. 13 The IS-LM model has been formulated by:
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) E Modigliani
(c)P.A. Samuelson
(d) J.M. Keynes
Ans: a
Directions
The following item consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R,). You are to exam inc these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
Q. 14. Assertion (A): The level of employment in an economy, according of Keynes, is a function of GNP.
Reason (R): GNP is determined by aggregate demand, which in turn depends upon consumption of the households and investment decisions of business.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true But R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
Q. 15. Which one of the following structural changes in the composition of National Income of India would characterize economic development?
(a) A large proportion of income from agriculture relative to other sectors.
(b) A small proportion of income from the tertiary sector compared to that from agriculture.
(c) A larger proportion of income from industry as compared to that from agriculture.
(d) A smaller portion of income from industry as compared to that from the tertiary sector.
Ans: b
Q. 16. Which of the following methods were used by the conventional series in computing National Income in India?
1. Output method.
2. Expenditure method.
3. Income method.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: b
Q. 17. Between 1951-52 and 1955-56 and 1985-86 and 1989-90, the share of agriculture in the GDP of India decreased from about 55% to about 33% and that of the tertiary sector increased from nearly 29% to 39%. This indicates that the
(a) productivity of land has been on the decline.
(b) the productivity of labour has been increasing.
(c) secondary sector has done much better than the primary and tertiary sectors.
(d) output of tangible commodities has not been increasing as fast as the GDP.
Ans: d
Q. 18 What is the correct sequence of the following?
1. Marrohkesh Declaration.
2. Smithsonian Agreement.
3. Keynes Plan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)1,2,3
(b)2,3,1
(c)3,2,1
(d)3,1,2
Ans: c
Q. 19. The following economists are associated with the “Exploitation Dependency Theory”:
1. Paul Baran
2. A.G. Frank
3. S. Amin ‘
4. G. Palma
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of them?
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,1,3,4
(c)2,1,4,3
(d) 1,2,4,3
Ans: b
Q 20. According to Hirschman, ‘convergent’ series comprises investment projects the appropriate more external economies then they create and ‘ divergent’ series comprises investment projects that create more external economies than what they appropriate.
In terms of this,investments in power and transport is: .
(a)convergent series.
(b)divergent series.
(c)respectively convergent and divergent series.
(d)both convergent series with diminishing returns.
Ans: b
Q. 21 According to neoclassical theory of distribution, constancy of wage share, in national income would come about only when elasticity of factor substitution:
(a) equals one.
(b) is greater than one.
(c) is less than one
(d) is zero.
Ans: a
Q. 22. The ‘Compensation criterion’ that state X is socially preferable to state Y, if those who gain from X can compensate the losers and still be in a better position than at Y has been proposed by:
(a) Bergson
(b) Pareto
(c) Kaldor
(d) Walras
Ans: c
Q. 23. According to Pigou, National Dividend will be the maximum when:
(a) marginal cost is minimized.
(b) net social marginal productivity is maximized.
(c) net private marginal productivity is maximized.
(d) net social marginal productivity becomes equal to net private marginal productivity.
Ans: d
Q. 24. A consequence of the Kaldor-Hicks compensation principle is that a change in the economic policy leads to an improvement in social welfare if the:
(a) gainers can compensate the losers for their loss and still remain better-off themselves than they were before.
(b) losers can profitably bribe the gainers to induce them to stay in the initial position.
(c) gainers can just compensate the losers out of their gains.
(d) Losers do not oppose the change.
Ans: a
Q. 25. Transfer payments by the government are not included in the net domestic product because:
(a) these are gifts from the government to the recipients.
(b) their opportunity cost is zero.
(c) such payments may not ‘ultimately reach the recipients.
(d) no corresponding production of goods and services has taken place to match the payment of such funds.
Ans: d
Q. 26. Liquidity preference refers to:
(a) the extent to which investors prefer to keep their assets in money.
(b) RB I’s shareholdings in other financial institutions.
(c) community’s preference for gold.
(d) community’s effective demand for capital goods.
Ans: a
Q. 27. Which of the following method(s) are used to
compute national income in India?
1. Net output method.
2. Net income method.
3. Expenditure method.
Select the correct. answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)2 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c)3 alone
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans: d
28. Assuming that
Change in investment I= 20
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)= 0.5
Marginal propensity to investment (MP) = 0.
The change in income Y will be equal to:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200
Ans: b
Q. 29. Consider the following statements
Intersection of the I—S and L—M Curves corresponds to:
1. equilibrium in the real sector.
2. equilibrium in the monetary sector.
3. liquidity trap necessarily
4. Walrasian general equilibrium.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1,2,3. and 4 are correct
Ans: b
Q. 30. Consider the following statements
The study of national income accounts is of great importance because it:
1. reveals the changes in the size and composition of the national product.
2. provides us with information about the distribution of national income in the society among various groups.
3. reveals the manner in which national expenditure is divided between consumption and investment. Of these statements
(a)1 and 2 are correct
(b)2 and 3 are correct
(c)1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: d
Q. 31. Consider the following types of income:
1. Personal income.
2. Private income.
3. Disposable income
4. National income
The correct sequence in descending order of their magnitude is:
(a) 4,2,1,3
(b) 4,2,3,1
(c) 2,4,3,1
(d) 2,4,1,3
Ans: a
Q. 32. Disposable personal income is:
(a) the sum of wages, salaries, commissions, bonuses and other forms of employee earnings before deduction of any taxes of social security contributions, net income from royalties and rentals, interest income and profits of a corporation, partnership of proprietorship.
(b) disposable income plus personal taxes; or current personal income receipts after deducting social security contributions but before deduction of personal taxes.
(c) a concept of receipts rather than a concept of earnings and is computed after taxes and social security contributions. One must add receipts that are not payments for current productive purposes and one must deduct all earnings not currently received and all taxes and social security contributions.
(d) the concept of individual’s income as the money value of his earnings from productive services currently rendered by him or by his property after deduction of personal taxes and social security contributions.
Ans: d
Q. 33. Given the total investment expenditure, an increase in the propensity to save will lead to a
(a) fall in the quantity of income.
(b) fall in income.
(c) rise in interest rate.
(d) rise in income.
Ans: d
Q. 34. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the:
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure.
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals.
(d) money value of final goods and services produced.
Ans: b
Q. 35. Gross National Sayings measure the
(a) amount of GNP not consumed.
(b) excess of income over consumption plus the net taxes.
(c) sum of retained earnings and depreciation amounts:
(d) excess of disposable income over consumption.
Ans: b
Q. 36. Social Accounting system in India is classified into which one of the following sets of sectors?
(a) Enterprise, households and government
(b) Assets, liabilities and debt position
(c) Public sector, private sector and joint sectors
(d) Income, product and expenditure
Ans: c
Q. 37. For a closed economy having no foreign trade which one of the following is correct?
(a) GDP= GNP
(b) GDP > GNP
(c) GDP
(d) GDP < or = GNP
Ans: a

Q. 38. According to the permanent income hypothesis. the
(a) long-run aggregate Average Propensity to Consume (APC) equals the long-run aggregate Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
(b) long-run aggregate APC is greater than the long- run aggregate MPC.
(c) long-run aggregate APC is less than the long-run aggregate MPC.
(d) APC of every individual is equal irrespective of different will be encouraged.
Ans: a
Q. 39. If there is an expectation of a rise in the price level, investment will be encouraged because:
(a) there will be an increased production of capital goods
(b) there will be arise in the prospective return from capital.
(c) the people save more and interest rate will fall.
(d) None of these
Ans: b
Q. 40 . Which of the following statements explain the difference between NNP
(Net National Product) and NMP. (Net Material Product)?
1. NNP includes services.
2. NNP excludes services.
3. NMP includes services.
4. NMP excludes services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes
(a) l and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c)l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: a
Q. 41. According to Keynes, marginal propensity to consume:
(a) can never exceed unity.
(b) may exceed unity when dissaving occurs.
(c) can never exceed the average propensity to consume.
(d) is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to save.
Ans: c
Q. 42. Super multiplier refers to:
(a) interaction of the mu1t and the accelerator.
(b) reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
(c) capital output ratio
(d) budget multiplier.
Ans: a
Q. 43. In the liquidity preference theory of interest of Keynes nioney acts as a link between the present
and the future in the case of:
(a) transactions demand for money.
(b) precautionary demand for money
(d) speculative demand for money.
Ans: d
Q. 44 . In 1970-71 the NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year, amounted to Rs. 34368 Crores. In 1976-77 while this NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year amounted to Rs. 66561 crores, at 1970-71 prices it amounted to Rs. 40395 crores. The rise in real NDP is
(a) insignificant
(b) Rs. 6027 crores
(c) Rs.31193crores
(d) Rs. 66561 crores
Ans: b
Q. 45. Assertion (A): A rise in the aggregate demand and aggregate supply of goods and services raises national income.
Reason (R) : National income represents the value of aggregate. production in monetary terms.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A;
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: b
Q.46 Excess of ex-ante saving over ex-ante investment means that: -
(a) income will fall.
(b) income will rise.
(c) income will rise and inventories will remain the
same.
(d) price will rise and inventories will accumulate.
Ans: a

### UPSC Economics MCQ Quiz

UPSC Economics MCQ Quiz
MCQ Quiz : India’s Economy Economics (Solved)
UPSC Civil Services: Economics Prelims Papers
est based on Past Exams Questions UPSC Economics MCQ Quiz
1. What does infant mortality rate refer to?
(a) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births
(b) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births
(c) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births
(d) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of everyl000 live births
Ans. (d)
2. Which among the following is not a committed expenditure of the Government of India?
(a) Interest payments
(b) Pay and allowances
(c) Transfers to States and Union Territories
(d) Loans and advances to States and Union Territories
Ans. (d)
3. Consider the following statements:
A. Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) extends to the entire country
B. ASI covers all factories registered under Sections 2m (i) and 2m (ii) of the Factories Act 1948.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
4. Who was the Chairman of the committee appointed in 2006 for setting out a roadmap towards fuller capital account convertibility?
(a) S.S. Tarapore
(c) C. Rangarajan
(d) M. Narasimham
(d) O.P. Sodhani
Ans. (a)
5. In which of the following years, was the trade balance favorable to India?
(a) 1970-71 and 1974-75
(b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
(c) 1972-73 and 1975-76
(d) 1971-72 and 1976-77
Ans. (b)
6. Consider the following statements:
A. The Fifth Economic Census was conducted by CSO in the year 2007.
B. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR) technology is being used for detailed processing of the data collected in the Fifth Economic Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
7. During which of the following years, average growth/rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2003-04
(c) 2005-06
(d) 2006-07
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following are the goals of Santa Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
A. All children of 6-14 years age in school/EGS (Education Guarantee Scheme) Centre/bridge course by the year 2015.
B. Bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by the year 2007 and at elementary education level by the year 2010.
C. Universal retention by the year 2020.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)
9. Consider the following:
A. Kennedy Round of negotiations.
B. Uruguay Round of negotiations.
C. Tokyo Round of negotiations.
Which is the correct chronological sequence of the
above?
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, A, B
(c) A, C, B
(d) B, A, C
Ans. (a)
10. Why is demographic dividend likely to be manifested in India in future?
(a) Population in the age group between 8-15 years is likely to increase
(b) Population of children below 7 years is likely to increase
(c) Population in the age group of 15-64 years is likely to increase
(d) Population in the age group above 65 years is likely to increase
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following is not the target stipulated in the Tenth Five-Year Plan?
(a) Creating 50 million job opportunities
(b) Reduction in poverty ratio from 26 percent to 21 percent
(c) Reducing gender gaps in literacy and wages rates by 50 percent
(d) Doubling per capita income in 8 years
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following items which are assigned weight in calculating wholesale price index in India
1. Primary articles
2. Fuel, power light and lubricants
3. Food products
4. Chemicals and chemical products
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above items in descending order in terms of their weight in the price index?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 1-3-2-4
Ans. (b)
113. Consider the following components of financial saving of the household sector in India
1. Currency
2. Deposits
3. Shares and debentures
4. Insurance funds
Which one of the following is the correct order of the aforesaid items in descending order in terms of their contribution to the financial saving of the household sector in the year 2005-06?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-4-1-3
(d) 4-2-l-3
Ans. (b)
14. What is the approximate share of SSIs in gross industrial value added in the Indian economy?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%
Ans. (d)
15.Consider the following sectors, contributing to India’s real GDP during the year 2005-06:
1. Agriculture and allied activities
2. Industry
3. Construction
4. Community social and personal services
Which one of the following is the correct descending order in respect of their contribution?
(a) 1-4-3-2 .
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Ans. (c)
16. The 12th Finance Commission has recommended to bring down the revenue deficit of the centre and states to zero by which year?
(a) 2006- 07
(b) 2007- 08
(c) 2008- 09
(d) 2009 -10
Ans. (c)
17. In which of the following years, the share of FIL (net) flows into Indian economy was the highest?
(a) 1999-2000
(b) 2000-01
(c) 2003-04
(d) 2004-05
Ans. (d)
18. Among different items of import of capital goods to India during the year 2005-06, which one of the following was the highest in the value terms ?
(a) Machine tools
(b) Electronic goods including computer software
(c) Transport equipments
(d) Project goods
Ans. (a)
19. Among the items of export of agricultural and allied products from India during the year 2005-06, which one of the following was the highest in the value
(a) Tea
(b Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Marine products
Ans. (c)
20. Consider the follow important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government
1. Corporation tax
2. Taxes on income other than corporation tax
3. Union excise duties
4. Service tax
Which one of the following is the correct order of the aforesaid taxes in descending order in terms of their yield as proposed in the Union Budget 2006-07?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 4-2-3-1
Ans. (b)
21. The Twelfth Finance Commission has recommended States’ share in the divisible pool of taxes at what percentage?
(a) 26.5 percent
(b) 28.5 percent
(c) 29.5 percent
(d) 303 percent
Ans. (c)
22. Consider the following statements about the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS):
1. The scheme has been implemented from Rabi 1999-2000 season.
2. The scheme is availab1a non-loanee farmers only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
23. In the total deployment of gross bank credit, which one of the following sectors had the maximum share as in March, 2006?
(a) Agriculture and allied activities
(b) Services
(c) Personal loan
Ans. (a)
24. As per use-based classification, which one of the following sectors had recorded highest growth in the year 2005-06?
(a) Basic goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Consumer goods
(d) Intermediate goods
Ans. (b)
25. In which one of the following years, the National Food Processing Policy was formulated?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Ans. (c)
26. Consider the following statements:
Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) was modified in the year 2004 to provide
1. the central assistance in the form of 70 percent loan and 30 percent grant for non-special category states.
2. the central assistance in the form of 10 percent loan and 90 percent grant for special category states.
3. the central assistance in the form of conversion of the loan to grant if projects are completed on schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
27. The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) has been renamed as which one of the following?
(a) Command Area Development and Water Management Programme
(b) Command Area Development and Forest Conservation Programme
(c) Command Area Development and Pollution Control Programme
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
28. Consider the following statements:
A. The coverage of Integrated Child Development Programme is limited and often the youngest children in the 0-3 year age group get left out of its ambit.
B. According to ICMR, at any given time, 7-15% of Indian children suffer from mental disorder
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
29. Which group of infrastructure industry has the highest gap in targets and achievements of production during the year 2006-07?
(a) Fished Steel
(b) Crude Petroleum
(c) Power
(d) Fertilizers
Ans. (a)
30. The National Horticulture Mission (NHM) has aimed at doubling the horticultural production. For this, the target year is
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2015
Ans. (c)
31 Consider the following agreements:
A. ISLFTA. (India -Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement).
B. SAFTA (South Asia Free Trade Area).
C. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement between India and Singapore).
D. SAPTA (South Asia Preferential Trade Area).
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above agreements?
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) B, A, D, C
(d) A, B, C, D
Ans. (a)
32. Which region of India has the lowest Thermal Plant Load Factor (PLF) for thermal power generation in the year 2006-207?
(a) Northern
(b) Western
(c) North-Eastern
(d) Southern
Ans. (c)
33. Consider the following statements:
A. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agricultural Insurance Company of India Ltd. (ATCIL).
B. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (a)
34. Thx on Banking Cash Transactions (withdrawals) over a certain threshold in a single day w introduced in the Union Budget of which year?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2004-05
(c) 2005-06
(d) 2006-07
Ans. (c)
35. Who among the following has suggested migration to accrual accounting system from cash based accounting system in India?
(a) I.V. Reddy
(b) R.H. Patil
(c) D.N. Ghosh
(d) C. Rangarajan
Ans. (c)
36. In which of the following years was the tax revenue as a percentage of GDP the lowest?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2003-04
(c) 2004-05
(d) 2005-06
Ans. (a)
37. Which one of the following is the proportion of rain-fed agriculture to the net sown area in India?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 72%
Ans. (a)
38. Consider the following statements about industrial relations on the basis of Economic Survey:
A. There was a constant decline in the number of strikes and lockouts during 2000-OS in India.
B. The maximum number of strikes and lockouts in the year 2006 were experienced by Kerala, followed by Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (a)
39. What is a strategy which makes an all-out effort to provide the masses of people in India access to basic facilities such as health, education, clean drinking water, etc., termed as?
(a) Inclusive growth strategy
(b) Exclusive growth strategy
(c) Rapid growth strategy
(d) Balanced growth strategy
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following sectors has the largest percentage share in India’s total exports for the period April 2006 October 2007?
(a) Chemicals and related goods
(b) Engineering goods
(c) Gems and jewellery
Ans. (b)
41. It Which sector has attracted highest FDI inflows during the period from August 1991 to September2006 (in % share)?
(a) Services sector
(b) Electrical equipments
(c) Telecommunications
(d) Transportation industry
Ans. (b)
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) External Debt / GDP ratio has declined consistently after the year 2003
(b) External Debt / GDP ratio has fluctuated after the year 2003
(c) External Debt/GOP ratio has increased after the year 2003
(d) External Debt/GDP ratio has remained constant after the year 2003
Ans (a)
43. NSSO regularly collects rural retail prices on monthly basis from selected markets for compilation of Consumer Price Index Number. Which one of the following is the correct pair of samples collected for the purpose?
(a) 403 villages and 39 urban centers
(b) 503 villages and 49 urban centers
(c) 603 villages and 59 urban centers
(d) 703 villages and 69 urban centers
Ans. (c)
44. Which one of the following is not proposed in the approach paper to the 11th Five Year Plan as important new social interventions?
(a) Provide freedom and resources to select institutions so that they attain global standards by the year 2011-12.
(b) Grant old age pension to the widows, handicapped and deserted and separated women.
(c) Ensure adequate representation of women in• elected bodies, State Legislatures, and the Parliament.
(d) Provide emergency obstetrics care facilities within 2 hours travel from every habitat.
Ans. (d)
45. Which of th€ following statements pertaining to the strategy to raise agricultural output during the 11th Five Year Plan, are correct?
A. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
B. Improve water management, rain water harvesting and watershed development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)
46.. With one area of infrastructure is not included in Bharat Nirman Scheme (2005-09)?
(a) Irrigation
(c) Rural health
(d) Rural housing
Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following is/are not monitorable target(s) for the 11th Five Year Plan?
A. Accelerate growth rate of GDP to 10% by the end of the plan and then maintain it in the 12th Five Year Plan.
B. Double per capita income by 201647.
C. Create 20 million new work opportunities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) B and C
Ans. (c)

## Monday, May 16, 2011

### UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 Part 1

UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 part 1
CIVIL Engineering Objective questions
Solved objective civil engineering UPSC IES Paper
Indian Engineering Services UPS Solved Papers 2010
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2.
A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
10.
A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be .
A RA = —10 kN and RC = —15 kN
B. RA =10kN and RC=—55 kN
C. RA =—15kN and RC=—10kN
D. RA =15kN Ã nd RCc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinÃ©iple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
45.
For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘Ls and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length Lh, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is
49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero
 1 A 2 D 3 D 4 C 5 B 6 D 7 D 8 B 9 C 10 C 11 D 12 C 13 D 14 D 15 C 16 A 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 C 21 B 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 A 26 B 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 D 31 A 32 D 33 A 34 A 35 # 36 A 37 A 38 C 39 B 40 A 41 B 42 D 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 B 47 C 48 C 49 C 50 B

# CHECK PART 2

### Objective solved questions civil engineering.

Objective solved questions civil engineering.
civil engineering objective type questions answers
Civil Engineering Solved Question Papers
civil engineering quiz questions and answers
Free online Civil Engineering Questions and quiz
Based on UPSC Engineering services exam 2010
1. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn2
B. 0.75 kN/ rn2
C. 1.35 kN/ rn2
D. 1.50 kN/ rn2
2. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
3.The duration of any activity in case of a PERT programme is calculated as a weighted average of three time estimates namely the optimistic time to , the pessimistic time tp and the most probable time tm which is given as
4. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
5. Consider the following statements of network:
1. Only one time estimate is required for each activity.
2. Three time estimates for each activity.
3. Time and cost are both controlling factors.
4. It is build-up of event-oriented diagram.
Which of the above statements are correctly applicable to CPM network?
A 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 4
D 3 and 4
6. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
7. A circular shaft which has a diameter of 100 mm is subjected to a torque of 5 kN-m. The shear stress, in N/mm2 , induced in the shaft would be
A160/Î
B.120/Î
C.125/Î
D.80/Î
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type)
A. Single angle in roof trusses
B. Double angles in roof trusses
C. Single I section in columns
D. Double I section in columns
List II
(Recommended
Slenderness ratio)
1. 80 — 150
2. 30—60
3. 100- 180
4. 60 — 120
Codes
A B C D
A 3 4 1 2
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 1 4 2
D.2 1 4 3
9.
10. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
11.
12. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
13. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis :‘
1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero.
2. At ultimate collapse load, the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to form a mechanism.
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both land2
14. The base plate of a roof truss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade fy = 250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area ?
A 30 kN
B. 67.5 kN
C. 90 kN
D. 120 kN
15. The maximum longitudinal pitch allowed in
bolted joints of tension members is
A 16 times the diameter of the bolt
B. 32 times the diameter of the bolt
C..16 times the thickness of the plate
D. 32 times the thickness of the plate
16. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone she takes no loss than 5 minutes for a call but sometimes as much as an hour. 15 minutes calls are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If the daughter’s calls were to be represented as an activity in PERT project, the expected duration of each phone call is?
A 89/6 minutes
B. 101/6 minutes
C.113/6 minutes
D.125/6 minutes
17
18.A propped cantilever of span L is subjected to a concentrated load at mid span. If Mp, is
the plastic moment capacity of the beam, the value of collapse load will be
A. 12Mp/L
B. 8Mp/L
C 6Mp/L
D. 4Mp/L
19. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.Î² distribution
D. Binomial distribution
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Shape factor
2. Length of the beam
4. Yield strength of material
Which of these affect the influence length of
plastic hinge in a beam?
A. 1 only .
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
21
22. Consider the following statements:
1. PERT is activity-oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
2. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
3. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
23
24.PERT calculator yield a project length of 60 weeks with a variance of 9 weeks. Probability factor, corresponding to 95% probability is 1.647; then the number of weeks required to complete, and project with a probability of 95% is,
A 60.94
B. 62.94
C. 64.94
D. 66.94
25. For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12; the factor of safety in bending stress is 1.5. If the allowable stress is increased by 20% for wind or ,earthquake loads, then the load factor is
A 1.10
B. 1.25
C. 1.35
D 1.40
26. A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is driven. The net sectional area of the plate is
A 1800 mm2 .
B. 2805 mm2
C. 2820 mm2
D 3242 mm2
27. At a section along the span of a welded plate girder, in which the web is spliced, the bending moment, at a section is M. The girder is comprised of top flange; web and bottom flange plates all of equal areas. The share of the bending moment taken by splice plates would be
A M
B. M/L
C. M/7
D M/13
28. Consider the following stipulations in designing a laced column
1. Single lacing systems on opposite planes shall preferably be in the same direction so that one is the shadow of the other.
2. Lacing bar should be a flat section.
3. The slenderness ratio of the lacing bars for compression shall not exceed l80.
4. Laced compression members are to be provided with tie plates at ends.
Which of the above observations is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4,
D. 1 and 4
29. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
30
31. Consider the following statements:
Entrainment of air in concrete is done so as to
1. Increase the workability.
2. Increase the strength.
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and thawing
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
32. Consider the following statements is work breakdown structure
1. It is a graphical representation of entire programme.
2. The Top-Down approach to planning is adopted.
3. The Down-Top approach to planning is adopted.
4. It is suitable for complex projects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
33. If P is the percentage of water required for determination of normal consistency of cement, then percentage of water to be added for determination of initial setting time is
A. 0.70P
B. 0.75 P
C. Q.80 P
D. 0.85 P
34. Consider the following statements regarding the. slope of cost-time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by ‘crash cost not divided by crash time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B.2 and 3
C. 2 only
D. 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength of concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
Which of the above statements.is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D.3 only
36. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is
500 kN. The ultimate collapse load of the column is
A 500 kN
B. 662.5 kN
C, 750kN
D.1100 kN
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher. strength than a lean concrete mix since it has more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
38. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm2 . and 300 kg/cm2 . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
39. Consider . the following statements:
1. Increase its strength.
2. Reduce heat of hydration.
3. Delay the setting of cement.
4. Reduce water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4.
40. A building contractor discovers from his record that in the last 200 slab castings his mixer machine broke down 21 times. During each breakdown, he had to pay on an average about Rs. 2,500 for idle labour. A standby mixer machine, if hired on the day of slab casting, would cost him Rs. 200 per day. The expected loss is more than the mitigation expense of hiring the mixer by
A Rs. 151.50
B. Rs. 241.50
C. Rs. 262.50
D. Rs. 283.50
41. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
42
The distribution factors for members AE and AC of the box section are
A 0.5 and 0.5
B. 0.6 and 0.4
C. 0.25 and 0.75
D. 1 and zero
43
44.Consider the following activities:
1. Pouring of concrete
2. Erection of formwork
3. Curing of concrete
4. Removal of formwork
What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities?
A 1—2—3—4
B.2— 1—4—3
C.2—1—3 —4
D.1—3—2—4
45. Which one of the following is relevant to Activity on Node (AON)?
A. Dummy activities may be many
B. There will be no dummy activities
C. It is used for quite complex project
D. It is easier to associate with time flow of activities
46. Consider the following statements about the
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1,2,3and4
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only.
47.
The RC slab, simply supported on all edges as in above figure, is subjected to a total UDL of 12 kN/m2. The maximum shear force! unit length along the edge ‘BC’ is
A 16kN
B. 12kN
C. 8kN
D. 30kN
48.
The above figure indicates a project network; the number at each activity represents its normal duration in days. The critical path is along
A 1—2—3—6—7— 8
B. 1—2 —4—5—7 — 8
C. l—2——5—7— 8
D. 1—2—4—6—7 — 8
49.
50
In the above network, the duration of activities are written along their arrows. The critical path of the activities is along
A 1—2—3—5—7—8
B. 1—2—3—6—7—8 .
C. 1—2—4—5—7—8
D. 1—2—3—4—5—7—8
 1 A 2 C 3 B 4 D 5 A 6 B 7 D 8 B 9 D 10 B 11 A 12 B 13 D 14 A 15 C 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 C 20 B 21 A 22 D 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D 31 C 32 B 33 D 34 C 35 B 36 C 37 A 38 B 39 B 40 # 41 A 42 A 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 A 47 A 48 B 49 C 50 A