Showing posts with label jobs exam. Show all posts
Showing posts with label jobs exam. Show all posts

Tuesday, May 17, 2011

sample paper Accountant Jobs

sample paper Accountant Jobs
Practice test For BCOM Jobs
Objective Solved Questions For Accounts Recruitment
1. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realizable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realization
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
2. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
3. Given
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
4. A company auditor addresses his audit report to
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)
5. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
6. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)
7. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
8. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalization method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)
10. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
11. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
12. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
13. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now days?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
14. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)
15. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
16. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)
17. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from the top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
18. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
19. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
20. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
21. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
22. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalization
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
23. The principle of unity of command implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
24. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12%
debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
25. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)
26. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)
27. Premium on issue balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)
28. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)
29. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
30. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)
31. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)
32. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)
33. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)
34. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)
35. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
36. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)
37. Over capitalization refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalization
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)
38. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorize the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)
39. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)
40. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organized group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)
41. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)
42. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)
43. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)
44. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)
45. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1)5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of
inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)
46. claimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)
47. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)
48. Which of the following is not correct —
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)
49. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)
50. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 8000 against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)

Monday, May 9, 2011

staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology

staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology

staff nurse model solved papers: Zoology Biology
staff nurse modal test paper solved dsssb exam
1. Whenever a non-sense codon formed in a polypeptide chain then it leads to:
(a) Addition of some specific thymine and cytosine bases
(b) Addition of some specific guanine and cytosine bases
(c) Termination of polypeptide chain
(d) Addition of some specific guanine and adenine bases
Ans. (c)
2. Direction of replication in mitochondrial DNA will be:
(a) Bidirectional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Replication absent
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
3. Pepsin is activated by:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Trypsin
Ans. (c)
4. The m-RNA is directly available translation without processing in:
(a) Green algae
(b) Bacteria
(c) Polysiphonia
(d) Chara
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Maximum DNA is present in cytoplasm than in nucleus
(b) Maximum RNA is present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(C) Maximum DNA present in nucleus than in cytoplasm
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (c)
6. Which-of following is example of steroid hormone?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Corticotrophin
(c) Insulin
(d) Testosterone
Ans. (d)
7. M and N blood groups are of importance in:
(a) blood transfusion
(b) Medico legal tests
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
8. The pace-setter in the heart is called:
(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) Sino arterial node
(c) Papillary muscle
(d) Artio-ventricular node (AVN)
Ans. (d)
9 What are the most diversed molecules m the cell?
(a) Lipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (b)
10. Kingdom Protista can be defined as:
(a) Microscopic multicultural organisms with – one or many nuclel, they don’t form embryo
(b) Microscopic, unicellular organisms with one or more nuclei, they do not form embryo
(c) Macroscopic, multi- unicellular organisms having only a large nucleus and no embryo formation in them
(d) none of the above.
Ans. (b)
11. A gorilla like man has huge hands and legs this – is due to abnormal secretion of:
(a) Pituitary FSH
(b) Pituitary LII
(c) Pituitary Gil
(d) Thyroid
Ans. (c)
12. Chloragogen cells serve for:
(a) Respiration
(b) Excretion
(c) Storage of glycogen and fat
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
13. Myxotrophic nutrition is found in:
(a) Mango
(b) Euglena
(c) Cara
(d) All Protozoa
Ans. (b)
14. Formation of embryo sac from diploid cells of ovule is known as:
(a) Apogamy
(b) Apospory
(c) Amphimtxis
(d) Apimixis
Ans. (b)
15. Cytoplasm of Amoeba proteus not contain
(a) Ectoplasm and endoplasm
(b) Endoplasm and mitochondria
(c) ER and ribosomes
(d) Mesosomes
Ans. (d)
16. In the body blood clotting is prevented by:
(a) Heparin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Starch
Ans. (a)
17. Fermentation is general term for the:
(a) Anaerobic degeneration of glucose or other organic nutrients to obtain energy
(b) An -aerobic degeneration of protein
(c) Formation of formic- acid
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a)
18. Function of SSE proteins during DNA replication is:
(a) Unwinding of DNA
(b) Denaturation of DNA
(c) Formation of RNA strands
(d) Stabilizing separated DNA strands
Ans. (d)
19. The net result of inversion is
(a) Gain of some inverted genes
(b) Neither a gain nor a loss in genes
(c) Loss of some genes
(d) Transfer of genes to non-homologous chromosome.
Ans. (b)
20. Amniotic egg is present:
(a) Hydra
(b) Reptiles
(c) Mammals
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
21. Building block of DNA are:
(a) Nucleosomes
(b) Nuclesides
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Nucleotides
Ans. (d)
22. The receptor for water soluble hormones are located on target cell surface then- for fat soluble hormone receptors. are:
(a) SV also on cell surface
(b) In cytosol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Does not have cell receptor
Ans. (b)
23. There is one difference between DNA replication of prokaryotes and eukaryotes:
(a) Eukaryotes contain DNA pol III while it is absent in prokaryotes
(b) The rate of replication fork movement in eukaryotes is lower then prokaryotes
(c) Many origin of replication present in eukaryotes while only one in prokaryotes
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
24. In micturition
(a) Ureter contracts
(b) Ureter relaxes
(C) Urethra relaxes
(d) Urethra contracts
Ans. (c)
25. Maximum peptidoglycan is present in which of the following cell?
(a) Gram negative bacterial cell
(b) Gram positive bacterial cell
(c) PPLO
(d) PSTV
Ans. (b)
26. Blood platelets are the source of:
(a) Fibrogen
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Thromboplastin
(d) Ca2+
Ans. (c)
27. In man the largest vertebra is:
(a) Caudal
(b) Sacral
(c) Lumber
(d) Cervical
Ans. (c)
28. Which of the following microtubule is mainly responsible for chromosome movement during mitotic division?
(a) Astral microtubules
(b) Polar microtubules
(c) Kinetochore microtubule
(d) Kinetochore
Ans. (c)
29. Earthworm appear brown due to the presence of:
(a) Chloragogen cells
(b) Chloragosomes
(c) Porphyrin
(d) Porin
Ans. (c)
30. Some human babies show “Cri-du-chat” syndrome due to:
(a) Pseudo dominance
(b) Dominance
(c) Duplication
(d) Translocation
Ans. (a)
31. Bacteria do not contain enzyme:
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Fructose-1, 6 bisphosrhate
(c) Fructose 2, 6 bisphosrhate
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (c)
32. Thiamine Pyrophosphate plays important role in the cleavage of bonds:
(a) Carboxylic group
(b) Carbonyl group
(c) Aldehydes group
(d) Keto group
Ans. (b)
33. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex vertebrates is strongly inhibited by:
(a) Ample of ATP, Co-A and NAD+
(b) Long chain fatty acids
(c) ATP and acetyl Co-A
(d) AMP, Co-A, NAD+
Ans. (d)
34. Nourishment in Trypnasoma is:
(a) Autotrophy
(b) Chemotrophy
(c) Osmotrophy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (c)
35. Cross over products are the result of:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Duplication
(c) Replication
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (a)
36. Tay sach’s disease is due to deficiency of enzyme:
(a) ?-N-acetyIhexosaminidase
(b) Tyrosinase
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenate
Ans. (a)
37. Parkinson disease is due to deficiency of:
(a) Acetyl chlorine
(b) Serotonin
(c) Dopamine
(d) Tyrosine
Ans. (c)
38. Different proteins that catalyze the same reaction are called:
(a) Homoprotein
(b) Alloproteins
(c) Alloenzyme
(d) Isozymes
Ans. (d)
39. Chondriods are also Known as:
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Mesosornes
(c) Spherosomes
(d) Peroxisomes
Ans. (b)
40. Each okazaki fragment in bacteria contains nucleotides approximately:
(a) 1000 to 2000
(b) 12100 to 120,000
(c) 5-10
(d) 150-200
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) The plasma membrane of bacteria shows fluid mosaic pattern
(b) Trans membrane proteins act as carriers or permeate to carry on selective transportation of nutrients
(c) Bacterial plasma membrane provides a specific sit& at which the single circular chromosome is attached
(d) All statement are correct
Ans. (d)
42. Exchange of chromosomal parts between two non-homologous chromosomes is known as:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Reciprocal translocation
(c) Exchange
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (b)
43. During binary fission Amoeba prophase stage shows following character:
(a) Amoeba becomes elongated and nuclear membrane does not disappear
(b) Amoeba becomes globular and chromosomes show pairing
(c) Amoeba becomes rounded and unclear membrane also disappear
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
44. Haversian canals are formed by the active division of:
(a) germinal-epithelium
(b) peritoneum
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(d) corpora cavernosa
Ans. (a)
45. Lathyrism, a disease caused by consumption of khesridal is characterized by:
(a) Retardation of body growth precious puberty and real dysfunctions.
(b) Reproductive failure, susceptibility to diabetes
(c) Mental retardation, failure of reproduction.
(d) Thinning of collagen fibres and fibrils and gross skeletal deformation
Ans. (d)
46. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(a) Lymphocyte
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Basophil
(d) Neutrophil
Ans. (a)
47. Lactoflavin (sensitizer) found in:
(a) Eye spot
(b) Paraflagellar body
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (b)
48. Which amino acid have the capability to absorb light at 280 nm?
(a) Glycine
(b) Cysteine
(c) Leucine
(d) Tryptophan
Ans. (d)
49. The cyanobacteria secrete peptides that cause the formation of hepatic tumour:
(a) Microcystins and nodularins
(b) Pyroglutamyl
(c) Glutathione
(d) Ghenyl isothiocyanate
Ans. (a)
50. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of:
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) folic acid
(c) Niacin
(d) Riboflavin
Ans. (c)

Thursday, April 14, 2011

Uco bank recruitment test 2011 result list

Uco bank establish in 1943 in Kolkata. Uco bank is a commercial bank and a Government of India Undertaking. Uco bank is one of the fast growing bank with branches all over Indian city.Here is list of successful candidate in Uco Bank examination held on 14th November 2011. Three time of given vacancies will be called for interview and with performance in interview and also in written test this is what selection procedure. After clicking of following list there will be display page containing link for list of candidate. Also link of call letter for interview where you get interview center and time of interview. Take print out of it for interview. There will also link for reprint of online application.

Click here for result list and interview scheduled

Saturday, December 18, 2010

Delhi Police Constable Driver Exam Solved Model Paper, 2009

(Held on 20-8-2009)
1. See Q. 1 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) One way road
(B) No overtaking
(C) No entry
(D) No entry for heavy vehicles
Ans : (B)
2. A number is greater than 7 but less than 19. It is also greater than 17 but less than 33. The number is—
(A) 19
(B) 18
(C) 31
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. In a ‘Left Hand Drive’ vehicle, the steering wheel is located on the—
(A) Left hand side
(B) In the centre
(C) Right hand side
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. While driving in the city at night, the headlight should normally be kept—
(A) Switched off
(B) At low beam
(C) At high beam
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. In a round-about, who has the right of way ?
(A) The traffic to your right
(B) The traffic to your left
(C) The faster moving vehicle
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)
6. If there are 3 lanes in a carriageway, the overtaking lane is usually on the—
(A) On the left side
(B) In the middle
(C) On the right side
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
7. Before leaving a parked vehicle, you should—
(A) Turn the ignition key off
(B) Stop the engine, lock the ignition, remove the key, and set the hand brake
(C) Stop the engine and lock the car
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
8. Double solid lines in the middle of the road indicate—
(A) You may cross over while overtaking
(B) You may not cross over the lines unless there is an obstruction
(C) No overtaking
(D) One way traffic only
Ans : (C)
9. Flashing yellow light means—
(A) Slow down and proceed with caution
(B) Stop, if possible to do so safely
(C) Continue at the same speed
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
10. To top up the battery—
(A) Acid is to be filled
(B) Distilled water is to be filled
(C) Mixture of both
(D) Mixture of distilled water and coolant is to be filled
Ans : (B)
11. See Q. 11 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) No entry
(B) No overtaking
(C) One way entry only
(D) No waiting
Ans : (A)
12. The braking action has reduced after washing the vehicle, what can be done ?
(A) Have the brakes adjusted at a workshop
(B) The vehicle is unserviceable and must be withdrawn from the traffic at once
(C) Normal braking action can be restored by operating the brakes several times at a slow driving speed
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
13. Ravi buys a bicycle for Rs. 1200 and later sells it to Ganesh at a loss of Rs. 200. Ganesh then sells it to Irfan for a loss of 10%. How much did Irfan pay for the bicycle ?
(A) Rs. 1100
(B) Rs. 950
(C) Rs. 1000
(D) Rs. 900
Ans : (D)
14. Petrol engine : Spark plug : : Diesel engine—
(A) Piston rings
(B) Crankshaft
(C) Heater plug
(D) Distributor
Ans : (B)
15. A bus leaves for Bhopal from Delhi every 40 minutes. The last bus for Bhopal left 15 minutes back and right now it is 11•25 A.M. At what time will the next bus for Bhopal leave ?
(A) 11.50 A.M.
(B) 12•05 P.M.
(C) 11•40 A.M.
(D) 11•45 P.M.
Ans : (A)
16. The distance between Delhi and Lucknow is 520 km. A train has covered 70 km in the first hour. What will the total time taken for the journey if the train goes at a speed of 90 km per hour for the remaining distance ?
(A) 5 hrs.
(B) 7 hrs.
(C) 5 hrs. 30 min.
(D) 6 hrs.
Ans : (D)
17. Mandatory traffic signs are in a—
(A) Triangle
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Can be of any shape
Ans : (D)
18. The choke can be used if the engine is—
(A) Hot
(B) Cold
(C) Giving smoke
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
19. See Q. 19 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Narrow bridge ahead
(B) One way road ahead
(C) End of dual carriageway
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)
20. In cold climate, kerosene can be mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Diesel
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
21. Every time engine oil is changed ……… must also be changed.
(A) Transmission oil
(B) Coolant
(C) Brake oil
(D) Oil filter
Ans : (D)
22. Informatory signs are usually ……… in shape.
(A) Circle
(B) Triangle
(C) Rectangle
(D) No particular shape
Ans : (C)
23. 10% of the potatoes bought by a trader turned out to be rotten. He sold the rest of them for a profit of 20%. What per cent profit did he make on the whole deal ?
(A) 10%
(B) 12%
(C) 8%
(D) 6%
Ans : (C)
24. Ustad Zakir Hussain is associated with the—
(A) Sarod
(B) Sitar
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (C)
25. See Q. 25 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) No entry
(B) No entry for heavy vehicles
(C) No parking
(D) End of restriction
Ans : (D)
26. Amartya Sen is a famous Indian—
(A) Musician
(B) Businessman
(C) Economist
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Overtaking from left side of another vehicle is permitted—
(A) Always
(B) Only when the driver ahead of you gives a signal
(C) Only when the vehicle ahead is going to take right turn and if there is no obstruction on left
(D) Only if you are in the left lane
Ans : (C)
28. See Q. 28 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Bridge ahead
(B) Narrow road ahead
(C) One way road
(D) Road damaged
Ans : (B)
29. The carburettor is found in—
(A) Diesel engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Both types of engines
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
30. Emperor Ashok was shocked by the pain and suffering he saw in the—
(A) Battle of Plassey
(B) Magadha wars
(C) Battle of Lumbini
(D) Kalinga war
Ans : (D)
31. The vacuum booster in a vehicle is used to assist the—
(A) Power
(B) Braking
(C) Fuel consumption
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
32. See Q. 32 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Parking permitted for 50 minutes only
(B) Speed limit 50 km per hour
(C) Parking space for 50 vehicles only
(D) Road ends 50 m ahead
Ans : (B)
33. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is for—
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 4 years
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
34. The central office of the Reserve Bank of India is in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)
35. Complete the series :
23, 40, 57, ……
(A) 74
(B) 80
(C) 77
(D) 93
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Find the odd one out :
36. (A) Cow
(B) Goat
(C) Camel
(D) Dog
Ans : (D)
37. (A) Petrol
(B) Wood
(C) Diesel
Ans : (B)
38. (A) Sun
(B) Moon
(C) Rainbow
(D) Stars
Ans : (C)
39. (A) Apple
(B) Potato
(C) Tomato
(D) Grapes
Ans : (B)
40. When starting a car, the accelerator should—
(A) Be kept pressed down fully
(B) Be pumped rapidly
(C) Normally not be pressed at all
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
41. See Q. 41 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Entry only for vehicles upto 3•5 m high
(B) No entry for vehicles over 3•5 tonnes
(C) No parking for tall vehicles
(D) No parking for heavy vehicles
Ans : (A)
42. Talking on the mobile phone while driving—
(A) Is permitted if a hands-free kit is used
(B) Is prohibited
(C) Is permitted if you are driving within the speed limit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
43. A driving license issued in Rajasthan is valid—
(A) Only in Rajasthan
(B) In Rajasthan and adjoining states
(C) All over India
(D) In all states of North India
Ans : (C)
44. Our body is made up predominantly of—
(A) Iron
(B) Muscle
(C) Bone
(D) Water
Ans : (D)
45. Which of these is not an ecofriendly power source ?
(A) Solar power
(B) Wind power
(C) Coal
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
46. Who has the right of way in the hills ?
(A) The vehicle going uphill
(B) The vehicle going downhill
(C) The heavier vehicle
(D) Depends on the situation
Ans : (A)
47. Which types of brakes are found in modern vehicles ?
(A) Drum brakes
(B) Disc brakes
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
48. Engine oil should be checked—
(A) When the engine is cold and vehicle is level
(B) When the engine is warm
(C) While the engine is running
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)
49. Saina Nehwal is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Swimming
(D) Chess
Ans : (B)
50. The Delhi Police Act came into effect in the year—
(A) 1861
(B) 1951
(C) 1978
(D) 1975
Ans : (C)
51. Using a pressure horn—
(A) Helps to clear the road
(B) Should be avoided at night
(C) Is illegal
(D) Is allowed only for VIP vehicles
Ans : (C)
52. India is a member of—
(C) UN Security Council
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
53. See Q. 53 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Hospital ahead
(B) End of speed restriction
(C) No traffic permitted
(D) No parking or standing
Ans : (D)
54. …… is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Attorney General
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
55. A car runs 2480 km on 310 litres of petrol during the first 15 days of the month. During the next 15 days, it travels 2560 km on 320 litres of petrol. What is the distance travelled per litre dur-ing the entire month ?
(A) 9 km
(B) 7•6 km
(C) 8•4 km
(D) 8 km
Ans : (D)
56. Abhinav Bindra won the Olympic gold medal in—
(A) Boxing
(B) Chess
(C) Wrestling
(D) Shooting
Ans : (D)
57. The port of Vishakhapatnam is on the coast of—
(A) The Bay of Bengal
(B) The Arabian Sea
(C) The Gulf of Khambat
(D) The Palk Straits
Ans : (A)
58. ……… is famous for its marble.
(A) Ranchi
(B) Makrana
(C) Bokaro
(D) Madurai
Ans : (B)
59. The oldest football tournament in India is the—
(A) Santosh Trophy
(B) Ranji Trophy
(C) Durand Cup
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
60. See Q. 60 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) No parking on either side
(B) Parking permitted on both sides
(C) Parking permitted only at night
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
61. The ……… links Jammu to the Kashmir valley.
(A) Rohtang Pass
(B) Baralacha Tunnel
(C) Jawahar Tunnel
(D) Sela Pass
Ans : (C)
62. The Amarnath cave is situated in—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Tibet
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (A)
63. Registration numbers of private cars are written in—
(A) Black letters on white background
(B) White letters on black background
(C) Black letters on yellow background
(D) Yellow letters on black background
Ans : (A)
64. The minimum age for applying for a learner’s license is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 16 years
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
65. A person who has consumed alcoholic drinks can drive if—
(A) He thinks he can control the car
(B) His house is closeby
(C) He is an expert driver
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
66. A water tank has a capacity of 400 litres. It gets half-filled by putting 10 buckets of water in it. What is the capacity of the bucket ?
(A) 10 litres
(B) 15 litres
(C) 40 litres
(D) 20 litres
Ans : (D)
67. Keeping one foot on the clutch—
(A) Helps in relaxing the leg
(B) Helps in changing gears
(C) Is a bad habit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
68. See Q. 68 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) No parking
(B) End of speed restriction
(C) No entry
(D) End of road
Ans : (A)
69. Where is the famous Sun Temple located ?
(A) Madurai
(B) Mathura
(C) Konark
(D) Calicut
Ans : (C)
70. See Q. 70 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) First aid post ahead
(B) Medical check required
(C) Check your first aid kit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
71. A flashing red light means—
(A) Stop, and wait for the light to turn green
(B) Stop, and proceed when it is safe to do so
(C) Slow down the check for oncoming traffic and proceed when it is safe
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
72. It is illegal to park—
(A) On a footpath
(B) On a bridge or inside a tunnel
(C) In a bicycle lane
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
73. Your vehicle is involved in an accident hurting people, you should—
(A) Report to the nearest police station, and take the persons to the hospital
(B) First take the injured people to the hospital and then report to the police station
(C) Need not report to the police station but should take the persons to the hospital
(D) Inform PCR on 100 and continue your journey
Ans : (B)
74. Which lane must you be in, while making a right turn ?
(A) Any lane
(B) Extreme left lane
(C) Extreme right lane
(D) Middle lane
Ans : (C)
75. While driving on a wet or slippery road—
(A) Tyre pressure must be reduced
(B) Sudden braking or acceleration must be avoided
(C) Vehicle should be driven at a high speed
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
76. To drive a vehicle with expired insurance, one—
(A) Shall drive cautiously to avoid any accident and subsequent loss to the third party
(B) Shall not drive in any case
(C) May drive if insurance policy covering the driver’s personal insurance is valid
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
77. With which country did India sign a nuclear accord in 2008 ?
(A) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Germany
Ans : (B)
78. Who built the Red Fort ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jehangir
(D) Shah Jahan
Ans : (D)
79. See Q. 79 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Playground ahead
(B) People may be crossing the road ahead
(C) School ahead
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
80. Who is the President of Pakistan ?
(A) General Kayani
(B) Pervez Musharraf
(C) Yusuf Gilani
(D) A. A. Zardari
Ans : (D)
81. The latest differences between the Ambani brothers are over—
(A) Natural gas
(B) Cotton textiles
(C) Mobile phones
(D) Petrol pumps
Ans : (A)
82. H1N1 (Swine Flu) spreads through—
(A) Unhygeinic food like pork
(B) Contaminated blood of infected person
(C) Contact with infected person
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
83. The Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for its—
(A) Rhinocerous
(B) White Tigers
(C) Ghariyal
(D) Great Indian Bustard
Ans : (A)
84. The electric current in our households is—
(A) 220 volt AC
(B) 220 volt DC
(C) 440 volt AC
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
85. Itanagar is the capital of—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Tripura
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Meghalaya
Ans : (C)
86. Car : Petrol : : Torch : —
(A) Plastic
(B) Cell
(C) Bulb
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
87. Neighbourhood : House : : … : Student.
(A) Class
(B) Books
(C) Uniform
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
88. …… : Deer : : Cow : Grass.
(A) Leaves
(B) Lion
(C) Jungle
(D) Zoo
Ans : (B)
89. Shared Needle :……… : : Mosquito Bite : Malaria.
(A) Pain
(B) Injection
(D) Cancer
Ans : (C)
90. Cassette Tape : Audio CD :: …… : Digital Picture.
(A) Photo film
(B) Camera
(C) Computer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

Inspector Grade II Sample exam Solved Model Paper for Food and Civil Supplies Punjab

Inspector Grade II Sample exam Solved Model Paper for Food and Civil Supplies Punjab
1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to
a. 11
b. 14
c. 20
d. 21
2. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is
a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
Answer -b
3. 0.333 …. × 0.444 …. is equal to
a. 0.148148148 ….
b. 0.777 ….
c. 0.121212 ….
d. 1.333 ….
5. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get
a. 96
b. 104
c. 108
d. 109
6. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27
a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
7. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -
a. 125m
b. 135 m
c. 159 m
d. 175 m
8.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?
a. 7 min & 15 sec
b. 7 min & 45 sec
c. 8 min & 5 sec
d. 8 min & 15 sec
9. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?
a. 7:5
b. 1:2
c. 2:1
d. 6:5
10.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?
a. 45 km/hr
b. 50 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 65 km/hr
11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was
a. 450 km
b. 675 km
c. 337.5 km
d. 1350 km
12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A’s share, 4 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share are all equal. The share of C is
a. Rs. 84
b. Rs. 147
c. Rs. 196
d. Rs. 240
13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is
a. Rs. 3500
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 2500
d. Rs. 4000
14.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is
a. Rs. 1700
b. Rs. 1800
c. Rs. 2000
d. Rs. 2200
15.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in
a. 48 days
b. 60 days
c. 75 days
d. 90 days
16.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is
a. 1848 cm3
b. 1232 cm3
c. 1078 cm3
d. 980 cm3
17.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is
a. 30 cm
b. 60 cm
c. 72 cm
d. 108 cm
18.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-
a. 125 sq. cm
b. 112.5 sq. cm
c. 110 sq. cm
d. 100?2 sq. m
19.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -
a. 10 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 26 cm
d. 27.5 cm
20.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same asa. 4 : 1
b. 2 :1
c. 7 : 5
d. 7 :10
21. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is
a. ?? : ?6
b. ?? : ?6
c. ?? : ?3
d. ?6 : ??
22.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?
a. Rs. 2400
b. Rs. 2160
c. Rs. 2100
d. Rs. 2052
23. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 16? %
24.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
25.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?
a. Rs. 1,20,000
b. Rs. 1,92,000
c. Rs. 1,24,000
d. Rs. 96,000
26. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 12½%
d. 25%
27. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was
a. 30 dozen
b. 40 dozen
c. 50 dozen
d. 60 dozen
28.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is
a. Rs. 370
b. Rs. 385
c. Rs. 390
d. Rs. 400
29.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
a. Rs. 950
b. Rs. 980
c. Rs. 1010
d. Rs. 1040
30.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is
a. 24
b. 36
c. 17
d. 72
31.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -
a. 15
b. 12
c. 10
d. 20
32.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee’s expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?
a. Rs. 300
b. Rs. 350
c. Rs. 375
d. Rs. 475