Showing posts with label PMT. Show all posts
Showing posts with label PMT. Show all posts

Monday, May 16, 2011

Free chemistry practice test for Medical Engineering exams

Free chemistry practice test for Medical Engineering exams
Chemistry Model Questions and Practice Exam for Medical/ Engineering Entrance
Free Online Medical Engineering Entrance Test In Chemistry
1. Brillstein test is used to detect which of the following?
(a) Na
(b) CO2
(c) N2
(d) Cl
Ans. (d)
2. Acetone and iodine reacts to produce iodoform in presence of:
(a) KOH
(b) NaOH
(c) MgCO3
(d) CaCO3
Ans. (b)
3. The number of atoms in one unit cell of a face centered cubic lattice is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Ans. (b)
4. All the lanthanides show the common valency:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c)
5. The hydrogen bond is not present in:
(a) Phenol
(b) Liquid HC1
(c) Water
(d) Liquid NH3
Ans. (b)
6. BF3 is a:
(a) Bronsted acid
(b) Bronsted base
(c) Lewis acid
(d) Lewis base
Ans. (c)
7. The number of sigma electrons in toluene are:
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 15
(d) 30
Ans. (d)
8. Benzaldehyde and alcoholic KCN reacts to produce which of the following:
(a) Ethyl benzoate
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Benzoin
(d) Benzyl benzoate
Ans. (c)
9. In human body the percentage of sodium and iron is
(a) 0.15%and0.10%
(b) 0.15% and 0.004%
(c) 0.20% and 0.08%
(d) 0.20% and 0.04%
Ans. (b)
10. Root mean square velocity of a molecule is 1000 m/s. The average velocity of the molecule is:
(a) 455.55 m/s
(c) 921.58 m/s
(b) 675.55 m/s
(d) 1221.58 m/s
Ans. (c)
11. The oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is:
(a) +3
(b) +5
(c) +6
(d) – 6
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following oxide cannot act as a reducing agent?
(a) SO2
(b) CO2
(c) ClO2
(d) NO2
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following is used as an anti-knocking compound?
(a) Glycol
(b) Glycerol
(d) Freon
Ans. (c)
14. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 25 days. Starting with 4 g of isotope, the mass
Remaining after 75 days is
(a) 0.2 g
(b) 0.4 g
(c) 0.5 g
(d) 0.6 g
Ans. (c)
15. Bad smelling isocyanides are formed by heating alkali and chloroform with any:
(a) Primary amine
(b) Aliphatic amine
(c) Aromatic amine
(d) Tertiary amine
Ans. (a)
16. Dacron is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and:
(a) Phthalic acid
(b) Terephthalic acid
(c) Salicylic acid
(d) benzoic acid
Ans. (b)
17. Chloramines-T is used as an:
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antiseptic
(c) Antipyretic
(d) anti-inflatnatory
Ans. (b)
18. The amount of chlorine evolved by passing 14 of current in aqueous solution of NaCI for 30 minis:
(a) 0.84g
(b) 1.32g
(c) 3.34 g
(d) 5.47 g
Ans. (b)
19. For a reversible reaction the concentration of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium:
(a) Becomes 1/4
(b) Doubled
(c) Halved
(d) Same
Ans. (d)
20. AgNO3 does not produce any precipitate with chloroform because:
(a) AgNO3 is insoluble inCHCl3
(b) CHC13 does not ionize in water
(c) CHC13 is insoluble in water
(d) CHC13 is an organic compound
Ans. (b)
21. Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as:
(a) Hydration
(b) Saponification
(c) Esterification
(d) Inversion
Ans. (d)
22. Yndall effects are not found in:
(a) Sugar solution
(b) Gold solution
(c) Suspension
(d) Emulsion
Ans. (a)
23. The molecule having zero dipole moment is:
(a) H2O
(b) HBr
(c) HF
(d) CO2
Ans. (d)
24. Ethylene reacts with 1% alkaline solution of KMnO4 to produce:
(a) Ethylene glycol
(b) Formaldehyde
(c) Acetone
(d) Acetic acid
Ans. (a)
25. By passing H2S through an acidified solution of Ag, Cu and Zn, the precipitated element is:
(a) Ag
(b) Cu
(c) Zn
(d) All of these
Ans. (b)
26. Two molecules of acetic acid on heating with phosphorous pent oxide produce:
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Acetic anhydride
(c) Acetyl pentaoxide
(d) Pentoxide of acetic acid
Ans. (b)
27. Which one of the following represents noble gas configuration?
(a) 1s2, 2s2p2, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s4p4d10, 5s2, 5p5d6, 6s2
(b) 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s4p4d10, 5s5p5d1, 6s2
(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s3p3d10, 4s4p4d10, 5s5p6
(d) 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s4p4f10, 5s5p5d1
Ans. (c)
28. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)4 Is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (a)
29. Ethyl amine on treatment with HNO2 produces:
(a) CH3CHO
(b) C2H5OH
(d) C2H5NO2
Ans. (b)
30. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(a) All metal nitrates’ are insoluble in water
(b) Solubility depends on temperature
(c) All metal nitrates are soluble in water
(d) All metal nitrates are soluble in alcohol
Ans. (c)
32. In benzene molecule carbon atoms are inclined at an angle of:
(a) 60°
(b) 109°, 28°
(c) 120°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
32. Which one of the following shows maximum value of paramagnetic behaviour?
(a) [Sc (CN)6]3-
(b) [Co (CN) 6]3-
(c) [Fe (CN) 6]4-
(d) [Cr (CN) 6]3-
Ans. (d)
33. Carbolic acid is:
(d) C6H5OH
Ans. (d)
34. The solubility product of BaCl2 is 4 x 10-9. Its solubility in mol/L is:
(a) 4 x 10-9
(b) 4 x 10-9
(c) 1 x 10-9
(d) 1 x 10-9
Ans. (c)
35. Which one can differentiate between C 2H5OH and CH3OH?
(a) H2O
(b) Na2CO3 + I2
(c) NH3
(d) HC1
Ans. (b)
36. Zinc and cold dil. HNO3 reacts to produce:
(a) NO
(b) NO2
(c) NH4NO3
(d) ZnNO3
Ans. (c)
37. The ratio of pi and sigma bonds in benzene is:
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:6
(d) 1:8
Ans. (b)
38. The chemical formula of plaster of Paris is
(a) CaSO4 ½H2O
(b) CaSO4 H2O
(c) CaSO4 2H2O
(d) CaSO4 3H2O
Ans. (a)
39. Which one of the following has square planar structure ?
(a) [Ni(CN) 4] 2-
(b) [Ni(CO) 4]
(c) [NiCl4] 2-
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
40. The oxidation number of chromium in potassium dichromate is:
(a) +2
(c) +6
(b) +4
(d) +8
Ans. (c)
41. The electronic configuration of most electronegative elements is :
(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p5
(b) 1s2, 2s2p4, 3s1
(c) 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s3p1
(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s3p5
Ans. (a)
42. The molecular formula C3H9N cannot represent:
(a) 1° amine
(b) 2° amine
(c) 3° amine
(d) Quatemary salt
Ans. (d)
43. The bond length between C—C bond in sp2 hybridized molecule is:
(a) 1.2 Å
(b) 1.39Å
(c) 1.33 Å
(d) 1.54 Å
Ans. (b)
44. The energy ratio of a photon. of wavelength 3000 A and 6000 A is:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:4
Ans. (b)
45. Gas equation PV = nRT is obeyed by ideal gas in:
(a) Adiabatic process
(b) Isothermal process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
46. Clemmensen’s reduction of ketones is carried out in:
(a) LiA1H4 in H20
(b) Glycol and KOH
(c) Zn-Hg and HC1
(d) H2 and Pd catalyst
Ans. (c)
47. The planar structure of BF3 can be explained by the fact that BF3 is
(a) sp-hybridized
(b) sp2-hybridized
(c) sp3-hybridized
(d) sp3d hybridized
Ans. (b)
48. Reduction of aniline with acetyl chloride in presence of NaOH produce:
(a) Aniline hydrochloride
(b) Acetanilide
(c) p-chloroaniline
(d) Areddye
Ans. (b)
49. The statement not applicable to chemisorptions is that it is
(a) Highly specific
(b) Independent of temperature
(c) Irreversible
(d) Slow
Ans. (b)
50. An unknown compound ‘D’ first oxidized to aldehyde and then acetic acid by a dilute solution of K2Cr2O7 and H2S04. The compound ‘D’ is
(a) CH3OH
(b) C2H5OH
(d) CH3CH2CH?
Ans. (b)

Free Chemistry Online Practice Tests

Free Chemistry Online Practice Tests
FREE online interactive quizzes on Chemistry 10+2 level
Free Online Test Preparation: Practice tests for chemistry for PET and PMT
Free online chemistry practice test for engineering/medical entrance exams
1. Which of the following varies with change in temperature?
(a) Mole fraction
(b) Molality
(c) % (w/w)
(d) Formality
Ans. (d)
2. Which of the following is not a chalcogen?
(a) Se
(b) O
(c) S
(d) Na
Ans. (d)
3. A radioactive substance decays to 3/4 of its original value in 2h. The half-life of the substance is:
(a) 60 mm
(b) 30 mm
(c) 90 mm
(d) 15 mm
Ans. (a)
4. A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. What is the oxidation number of vanadium in the compound?
(a) +4
(b) +3
(c) +2
(d) +1
Ans. (a)
5. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends, the white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be:
(a) At the centre of tube
(b) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle
(c) Near the ammoni bottle
(d) Throughout the length of the tube
Ans. (b)
6. With the help of which reaction cyclohexanone is converted into cyclohexane?
(a) Wurtz-Fittig reaction -
(b) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(c) Tischenko reaction
(d) Stephen’s reaction
Ans. (b)
7. Benadryl is used as:
(a) Antiseptic
(b) Disinfectant
(c) Analgesic
(d) Antihistamine
Ans. (d)
8. Azeotropic mixture of HC1 and water has:
(a) 80% HC1
(b) 20.2% HC1
(c) 60% HC1
(d) 40.8% HC1
Ans. (b)
9. The molal freezing point constant for water is1.86°C per mol therefore, the freezing point of 0.M NaCl solution in water is expected to be:
(a) —1.86°C
(b) —0.186°C
(c) +0.372°C
(d) —0.372°C
Ans. (d)
10. The percentage by weight of hydrogen in C2H5OH is:
(a) 20 %
(b) 23.08 %
(c) 13.04%
(d) 10.15%
Ans. (c)
11. Real gas will approach the behaviour of an ideal gas at:
(a) Low temperature and low pressure
(b) High temperature and low pressure
(c) High temperature and high pressure
(d) The critical point
Ans. (b)
12. 0.45 g acid of molecular weight 90 was neutralise by 20 mL of 0.5N KOH. The basicity of the acid is:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 3
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following is not possible?
(a) n=2, l=1, m=0
(b) n=2, l=0, m= -1
(c) n=3, l=0, m=0
(d) n=3, l=1, m= -1
Ans. (b)
14. The relationship which describes the variation of vapour pressure with temperature is known as:
(a) Kirchhoff’s law
(b) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
(c) EquationHesss law
(d) Arrhenius equation
Ans. (b)
15. Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because:
(a) Phenol is more soluble in polar solvents
(b) Alcohol does not lose hydrogen atom
(c) Pentoxide ion is stabilized by resonance
(d) Pentoxide ion do not exhibit resonance
Ans. (c)
16. The element having highest electron affinity is:
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Fluorine
(d) Chlorine
Ans. (d)
17. Bakelite is prepared by the reaction between:
(a) Phenol and formaldehyde
(b) Urea and formaldehyde
(c) Ethylene and glycol
(d) Tetra ethylene and glycol
Ans. (a)
18. Which one of the following is a conjugated protein?
(a) Phosphoprotein
(b) Glycoprotein
(c) Chromoprotein
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
19. Iodine test is shown by
(a) Glucose
(c) Glycogen
(b) Starch
(d) Polypeptide
Ans. (b)
20. A fruity smell is obtained by the reaction of  ethanol with:
(a) CH3COCH3
(b) PCl5
(d) CH3CHO
Ans. (c)
Directions: In the following questions more than one of the answers given may be correct. Select the correct answers and mark it according to the code.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
21. The enthalpy change for the process
(1) Heat of vaporisation
(2) Heat of sublimation
(3) Heat of atomisation
(4) Heat of allotropic change
Ans. (c)
22 The anodic mud obtained during electro refining of Cu contains:
(1) Ag
(2) Fe
(3) Au
(4) Zn
Ans. (d)
23. Which is natural polymer?
(1) Cellulose
(2) Protein
(3) SBR
(4) PMMA
Ans. (b)
24. Resolution can be done by:
(1) Mechanical method
(2) Biochemical method
(3) Chemical method
(4) Dialysis method
Ans. (a)
25. Aldehyde and ketone can be distinguished by:
(1) Tollen’s reagent
(2) Fehling’s reagent
(3) 2, 4 -DNP
(4) NaHC03
Ans. (b)
26. Which elements can detect by flame test?
(1) Na
(2) Ca
(3) Ba
(4) Be
Ans. (a)
27. The raw material in Solvay process is:
(1) NaC1
(2) CaCO3
(3) NH4C1
(4) CO2
Ans. (a)
28. Which are the acidic oxides?
(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) MgO
(4) AI2O3
Ans. (b)
29. Monodentate ligands are:
(1) H2O
(2) NH3
(3) EDTA
(4) Ethylene diamine
Ans. (b)
30. The greater stability of tert-butyl carbocation over methyl carbocation can be explained on the basis of:
(1) +1 effect of the methyl group
(2) Hyperconjugation effect of the methyl group
(3) Electromeric effect of the methyl group
(4) —I effect of the methyl group
Ans. (b)
31. Graphite is used:
(1) In making electrodes
(2) As lubricant
(3) As crucible in lead pencil
(4) In the manufacture of glass
Ans. (a)
32. IInd group basic radicals are:
(1) Pb
(2) Ba
(3) Sb
(4) Ni
Ans. (d)
33. Which are colligative properties?
(1) Osmotic pressure
(2) Pressure
(3) Elevation in boiling point
(4) Volume
Ans. (d)
34. Which are sulphide ores?
(1) Zinc blende
(2) Galena
(3) Cryolite
(4) Rutile
Ans. (b)
35. Disaccharide sugars are:
(1) Maltose
(2) Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Raffinose
Ans. (d)