Showing posts with label quiz. Show all posts
Showing posts with label quiz. Show all posts

Wednesday, March 7, 2012

Latest GK India, March 2012

Latest GK India, March 2012

According to 2011 Annual Report of the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) released globally in Vienna, which country figures high in online dope trade?
- India ( 151 Kg illicit drugs recovered from 152 parcels in 2011)

What are the harsher punishments for traffic violations according to the amended Motor Vehicle Act approved on 1st March, 2012 by government?
For drunken driving the increased fine will range from Rs 2000 to 10,000 and imprisonment from six months to four years. For using mobile phones while driving fine raised to Rs 500 for first offence and Rs 2000 to Rs 5000 for subsequent offences.

India and which other country with long coastline have agreed to hold first ever maritime talks?
- China

Who is appointed new Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Training Command, IAF in Bangalore on 1st March,2012?
- Air Marshal Rajinder Singh ( Born in 1953 at Palampur, H.P)

Recently a pin shaped device suspected to be a remote electronic listening device was found in whose office?
- In the office of Defence Minister AK Antony on 16th Feb, 2012

Who has been appointed as the chairman of the monitoring authority that is supervising the investigations into 22 alleged fake encounter killings in Gujarat during 2002-06 by the Supreme Court on 2nd March,2012?
- Retired judge HS Bedi

Who will be Pakistan's new cricket coach? 
- Former Australian batsman Dav Whatmore

Who will be the next Army Chief after General VK Singh, retiring from service on 31st May,2012?
- Lieutenant General Bikram Singh (second-ever Sikh, after General JJ Singh (retd.) to command the 1.3 million strong Indian Army)

When did the Army successfully test fired the 290 Km range BrahMos supersonic cruise missile at the Pokharan range to operationalize the second regiment of the weapon system in service?
- On 4th March, 2012 ( One regiment of the 290 Km range BrahMos consists around 65 missiles, five mobile autonomous launchers on Tatra vehicles and two mobile command posts, among other equipments.) 

Who clinched the first women's Kabaddi World Cup championship title after defeating Iran?
- India

Thursday, May 19, 2011

Economics Question Bank Economy Quiz solved Economics Test

Economics Question Bank Economy Quiz solved Economics Test
answer questions about economics
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS. Sample Test Multiple Choice Questions MCQ
economics review questions and economics interview questions
1. The basic difference between imperative and indicative planning is that ?
(a) it is easier to achieve targets in imperative type of planning
(b) in the case of imperative planning, all economic activities belong to public sector, while in the other type they belong to the private sector.
(c) in the case of the imperative planning, the market mechanism is entirely replaced by a command hierarchy, while in the case of indicative planning, it is looked upon as a way to improve the functioning of the market system
(d) in the case of indicative planning, there is no need to nationalize any industry

2. The principal reason why national economic planning is still being pursued in spite of embracing a market economy since 1991 is that
(a) The vast quantity of capital already deployed in the public sector needs to be nurtured.
(b) The market economy is mainly confined to industry and commerce, and central planning in agriculture is necessary.
(c) It is a constitutional requirement.
(d) Five Year Plans can continue to provide a long-term perspective to the economy in market friendly fashions.
3. The type of planning experimented between 1978 and 1980 is known as
(a) Rolling Plan
(b) Annual Plan
(c) Indicative Plan
(d) Collective Plan
4 Narasimhan report relates to the restructuring of
(a)sick industries
(b) sales tax
(c)income tax
(d) banks
5. Which of the following organizations functions as an apex institution for the agencies engaged in the economic development of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) National Research Development Corporation
(b) National Institute of Rural Development
(c) National Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation
(d) National Bank For Agriculture and Rural
6. Rural Development Programmes are related to
(a) Self employment
(b) giving jobs to the poorer graduates
(c) poverty alleviation in states
(d) None of these
7. When was the Cooperative Societies Act first passed in India?
(a) 1900
(b) 1902
(c) 1904
(d) 1906
8. Sarvodaya aimed at ?
(a) classless society
(b) economic revolution
(c) upliftment of weaker sections
(d) upliftment of all, irrespective of their status
9. ‘Utility’ in economics means the capacity to
(a) provide comforts
(b) earn an income
(c) satisfy human wants
(4) satisfy human motives
10. Debt service ratio implies ratio between
(a) import and debt
(b) export and principal plus and payment on debt
(c) domestic saving and import
(4)domestic saving and export
11. Saving is a function of
(b) income
(c) export
(d) improvement in productivity
12. A deflator is a technique of ?
(a) adjusting for changes in price level
(b) adjusting for change in commodity
(c) accounting for higher increase of GNP
(d) accounting for decline of GNP
13. Credit is a
(a)Stock concept
(b) Flow concept
(c) Stock flow concept
(4) None of these
14, The concept of Joint Sector implies association
(a) Small and large industries
(b) State and Central Govt enterprises
(c) Indian and multinational companies
(d) Public sector and private sector industries
15. Which of the following is the correct description of the term ‘tainted shares’?
(a) The shares purchased by NRIs
(b) The shares which were involved in the case of securities scam
(c) The shares whose price falls by mote than 20 points in a day
(d) The shares the price of which falls continuously for seven days
16. A loan bearing low rate of interest is known as
(a)Hard loan
(b) Soft loan
(c) Capital loan
(d)Real loan

17. White goods are
(a) basic raw materials
(b) cosmetic articles
(c) goods imported from the western countries
(d) durable consumption goods
18. Sellers market denotes a situation where
(a) commodities are available at competitive
(b)demand exceeds supply
(c)supply exceeds demand
(d) supply and demand are evenly balanced.
19. ‘Mixed Economy’ means
(a) co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
(b) co-existence of the rich and the poor
(c) co-existence of private and public sector
(d) assigning equal importance to both agriculture and heavy industries
20. Which of the following best defines the term ‘Letter of Credit’ as used frequently in bank transactions?
(a) An order from a bank to another bank abroad authorizes the payment of a particular amount to a person named in the letter
(b) An unconditional undertaking given by a bank ensuring the payment of a particular amount to the drawee at a given date
(c) Letter by a bank to a person stating the terms and conditions of the loan sanctioned to him by the bank
(d) Statement showing outstanding deposits and credits of a hank for a particular period
21, Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Frictional unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Technological unemployment
22. GNP (Gross National Product) is the money value of
(a) final goods and services produced annually in the economy
(b) annual service generation in the economy
(c) tangible goods available in the economy
(d) tangible goods produced annually in the
23. Development means economic growth plus
(b) deflation
(c)price stability
(d) social change
24. A Multinational is ?
(a) a company operating in several countries
(b) a company having share holders from more than one country
(c) a company which does charitable work in poor countries
(d) a company that operates only in those countries that do not have import restrictions
25. ‘Take off stage’ in an economy means
(a) steady growth begins
(b) economy is stagnant
(c) economy is about to collapse
(d) all controls are removed
26. ‘A formal evaluation of an individual’s or company’s credit history and capability of repaying obligations’ is known as
(b) Net Asset Value
(c) Credit rating
(d) Cash Credit
27. The balance of payment comprises
(a) official settlement account
(b) a current account of goods and services
(c) a capital account of financial assets
(d) All the above
28. The State’s action under which a creditor’s right to take action against a debtor for realization of debt – money is kept under suspension for a specified period is called.
(d) Moratorium
29. Equilibrium price is that price which
(a) maximizes producers profit
(b) equates consumers and producers surplus
(c) maximizes consumer’s satisfaction
equates supply and demand

30. ‘Capital goods’ refer to goods which
(a) serve as a source of raising further capital
(b) help in the further production of goods
(c) directly go into the satisfaction of human wants
(d) find multiple uses
Answers :
1 B
2 D
3 A
4 D
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 D
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 D
24 A
25 A
26 C
27 D
28 D
29 D
30 B

India economics questions test exercises MCQ Objective Quiz

India economics questions test exercises MCQ Objective Quiz
economics questions test worksheets practice test
Basic economic principles and facts
Basic Economics MCQ’s with Answers
Multiple choice questions economics?
1. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the 11 Five Year Plan?
1. Creating and updating database on slums.
2. Using land as a resources for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers.
3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.
4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1,2 and 3
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 4
(d)1,2 and 4
Ans. (d)
2. Demographic divide refers to a rise in population
(a) between the age group of I to 14 years
(b) between the age group of 15 to 64 years
(c) between the age group of 65 to 74 years
(d) above 74 years
Ans. (b)
3. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) is estimated at about:
(a)Rs. 30 lakh crore
(b) Rs. 36 lakh crore
(c)Rs. 40 lakh crore
(d) Rs. 46 lakh crore
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro,Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakh and less than Rs. 2 crore
(b) More than Rs. 2 crore and less than Rs. 5 crore
(c) More than Rs. 5 crore and less than Rs. 10 crore
(d) More than Rs. 10 crore
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
(a) It was launched in the year 2007
(b) The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25
(c) The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
(d) It provides insurance against natural death as well as accidental death
Ans. (b)
6. Balance on capital account refers to the
(a) nation’s net exports of goods, and services
(b) nation’s net exports of financial claims
(c) nation’s net exports of international official reserve assets
(d) nation’s sum of net exports of goods, services and financial claims
Ans. (a)
7.With which one of the following does the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deal?
(a) Terms of trade of less developed countries
(b) Terms of trade of developed countries
(c) Balance of payments of less developed countries
(d) Balance of payments of developed countries
Ans. (c)
8. The effect of trade with different production possibilities curves
and identical indifference curves is to make a country.
(a) more specialized in consumption and less specialized in production
(b) more specialized in production and less specialized in consumption
(c) less specialized both in consumption and in production
(d) more specialized both in consumption and in production
9. consider the following statements:
When factor intensity reversal occurs
1. Heckscher-Ohlin trade model fads.
2. factor price equalization theorem fails.
3. elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
10. Under which one of the following conditions is the gain from international trade maximised?
(a) Marginal rate of transformation (MRT) in production is equal to the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) in consumption
(b) MRT in production is greater than MRS in consumption
(c) MRT in production is less than MRS in consumption
(d) MRT in production and MRS in consumption are equal to international price ratio
Ans. (a)
11. The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
(a) asset creation and income generation
(b) population groups and their respective income shares
(c) unemployment and inflation
(d) wages, labour hours and leisure
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Traditional
Society in Rostow’s Stage theory?
1. Limited production function.
2. No government intervention.
3. Pre-Newtonian science and technology.
4. Dominance of agricultural activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 2,3 ánd4
Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following is the difference between value at
market prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate?
(a) Value of consumption of fixed capital
(b) Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies
(c) Value of net factor income earned abroad
(d) Value of subsidies net of indirect taxes
Ans. (b)
14.Given C=120+0.4Y,
(Where C =Consumption, I = Investment, G =Government Expenditure and
Y = Income); which one of the following is the value of equilibrium income?
(a) 366.67
(b) 460.00
(c) 310.00
(d) 266.67
15. According to Life Cycle Hypothesis, consumption is related to which one of the following?
(a) Current income
(b) Past peak level income
(c) Life time expected income
(d) Price expectations over one’s life time
Ans. (c)
16. Keynes states that the aggregate demand function is:
(a) an increasing function of the level of employment
(b) a decreasing function of the level of employment
(c) a constant function of the level of employment
(d) not related to the level of employment
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following are the limitations of national income
estimation in India?
1. Output of non-monetized sector. -
2. Non availability of data about income of small producers or household enterprises.
3. Unreported legal income.
4. Inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of The following is shown by the Phillips Curve?
(a) Inverse relationship between real and nominal wages
(b) Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(c) Positive relationship between nominal wages and the rate of employment -
(d) Positive relationship between rate of inflation and nominal wages
Ans. (b)
19. If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs that it uses, equal to its value of marginal product, then which one of the following does it earn?
(a) Positive supernormal profit
(b) Zero supernormal profit
(c) Negative supernormal profit
(d) Monopoly profit
Ans. (b)
20. The costs of factors of production, supplied by the entrepreneur
himself are known as
(a) implicit costs
(b) explicit costs
(c) fixed costs
(d) variable costs
Ans. (b)
21.Which one of the following taxes/cess is levied by States in
(a) Tax on motor vehicles
(c) Educational cess
(b) Tax on hotels
(d) Tax on wealth
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following is capital receipt in government budget?
(a) Interest receipts o loans given by the Government to other parties
(b) Dividends and profits from public sector undertakings
(c) Borrowing of the Government from public
(d) Property tax receipts
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following are the characteristics of progressive
I. Marginal tax rate should be increasing.
2. Marginal tax rate should be more than average tax rate.
3. Gini coefficient for the post-tax distribution of income should be less than that of pre-tax distribution.
4. Tax amount should be lump sum in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1 and 4
(d)2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24. Consider the following statements regarding argument for free
1. Free trade leads to maximization of output, income and
2. Free trade prevents monopoly.
3. Free trade protects domestic industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2and3
(d) 1,2and 3
Ans. (b)
25. Marshall-Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticities of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is:
(a)greater than one
(b) less than one
(c)equal to one
(d) equal to zero
Ans. (c)

Tuesday, May 17, 2011

Common Law Admission Test CLAT practice paper General Awareness

Common Law Admission Test  CLAT  practice paper  General Awareness
Practice Test Paper For CLAT Common Law Admission Test
free Sample Questions
Online Free MCQ Quiz
1. Which of the following gave a tough resistance in India to the army of Alexander?
(A) Bimbsara
(B) Bindusara
(C) Poras
(D) Harshvardhan
Ans. (C)
2. Alberuni accompanied to India with—
(A) Mohammad Ghori
(B) Mabmud of Ghazni
(C) Timurlang
(D) Ahmad Shah Abdali
Ans. (B)
3. Which of the following are the Indian astronomer and mathematician during the reign of?
Chandragupta Vikarmaditya?
(A) Charak
(B) Banbhatta
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) Susrut
Ans. (C)
4. Russia sent troops during the end of 1979 to—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
Ans. (C)
5. Analects is the sacred book of—
(A) Taoism
(B) Confucianism
(C) Judaism
(D) Shintoism
Ans. (A)
6. Which of the following held the post of Deputy Prime Minister of India simultaneously with Jagjivan Ram?
(A) Y. B. Chavan
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Guljari Lal Nanda
(D) B. D. Jatti
Ans. (B)
7. Which one of the following is popularly called ‘Dakshin Ganga’?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Godavari
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Krishna
Ans. (B)
8. Which state in India is called the ‘Garden of Spices’?
(A) Assam
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans. (C)
9. Synagogue is the place of worship of—
(A) Taosim
(B) Zoroastrianism
(C) Judaism
(D) Shintoism
Ans. (C)
10. The first Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Tinbergen and Frisch in—
(A) 1969
(B) 1968
(C) 1970
(D) 1967
Ans. (A)
11. Mohoroviac Discontinuity is—
(A) A tear fault in ocean floor
(B) The boundary between Earth’s crust and mantle
(C) Sliding rigid Plates of lithosphere
(D) Mid-Atlantic ridge
Ans. (B)
12. Aspirin is—
(A) Methyl Salicylate
(B) Methyl Benzoic Acid
(C) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
(D) Phenyl Salicylate
Ans. (C)
13. The United Nations Organization was established in—
(A) 1944
(B) 1945
(C) 1950
(D) 1939
Ans. (B)
14. The first Afro-Asian Conference where Panchsheel was advocated was held in—
(A) Cairo
(B) Algiers
(C) Bandung
(D) Colombo
Ans. (C)
15. Super 301 envisages retaliatory action by the United States against countries it believes, to be—
(A) Incurring large external debts and failing in its debt repayment
(B) Violating human rights
(C) Against free enterprise
(D) Blocking free international trade practices
Ans. (D)
16. The first Chairman of Administrative Reforms Committee was—
(A) K. Hanumanthia
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V.K.R.V. Rao
(D) Amul Desai
Ans. (B)
17. The present Indian Constitution came into force in—
(A) 1949
(C) 1952
(B) 1950
(D) 1148
Ans. (B)
18. From each according to his ability, to each according to his work’ is the basis of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Communism
(D) Fascism
Ans. (C)
19. The term ‘Stagflations’ is used to describe—
(A) Fixed prices and wages
(B) Stagnation in production and inflation
(C) High productivity and price rise
(D) A stagnant economy
Ans. (B)
20. The abbreviation ‘UNEF’ stands for—
(A) United National Eritrean Front
(B) United Nations Emergency Force
(C) United Nations Educational Faculty
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
21. “Workers of the World Unite” was said by the following—
(A) Karl Marx
(C) Chanakya
(B) Machiavelli
(D) John Stuart Mill
Ans. (A)
22. The term ‘Coup of the teat’ is used for—
(A) Peaceful co-existence of super powers
(B) Constitutional change of government
(C) Change of government due to the death of highest authority
(D) Violent overthrow of government
Ans. (D)
23. Karl Popper is a great name associated with—
(A) Social philosophy
(B) Drama
(C) Psychoanalyst
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
24. Name the person who was popularly known as “Deshbandhu”.
(A) A.G. Khan
(C) C.F. Andrews
(B) C.R. Das
(D) D. Naoroji
Ans. (B)
25. The author of the ancient Hindu Law is—
(A) Panin
(B) Valmiki
(C) Manu
(D) Lord Krishna
Ans. (C)

Free Study Material Online MCQ Quiz Common Law Admission Test CLAT

Free Study Material Online MCQ Quiz Common Law Admission Test CLAT
Reasoning Free online test for CLAT
Reasoning Test For CLAT Common law Admission Test
Online Free MCQ Quiz
Multiple Choice Solved Questions CLAT
1. A student ranks 18th in the class of 45, what is his rank from the last?
(A) 27th
(B) 28th
(C) 29th
(D) 30th
Ans. (B)
2. In a row of boys Sandesh is 8th from the right and Chunkey is 12th from the left ,when Sandesh and Chunkey interchange their positions, Chunkey becomes 21st from the left which of the following will be Sandesh’s position from the right?
(A) 8th
(B) 17th
(C) 21st
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans. (B)
Directions:Answer the following questions based on the following alphabet— ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST UVWXYZ
3. If every even letter beginning from ‘B’ is replaced by odd number beginning with 3, which number/letter will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) 23
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
4. If the alphabet is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting with Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle in the remaining letters of alphabet?
(A) M
(B) O
(C) M or O
(D) N
Ans. (D)
5. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following sequence?
Ans. (C)
6. If you pick up from the alphabet, the sixth and the fourteenth letters from your right and then pick up, the fifth and the twentieth letters from your left and form a meaningful word, what is the first letter of that word ?
(A) M
(B) B
(C) No meaningful word can be formed
(D) More
Ans. (A)
7. In a certain code ‘FORM’ is written as ‘ERQP’ How will’ CLEAN’ be written in that code?
Ans. (C)
8. If sign ‘—‘ means ‘plus’ sign ‘+‘ means ‘minus’ sign x means ‘divided by’ and sign ‘÷‘ means ‘multiplied by’. Then simplify— 7—8 x 5 ÷ 6 + 4
(A) 3
(B) 12
(C) l2 3/5
(D) 48 /5
Ans. (C)
9. If ‘—‘ (minus) means ‘multiplied by’, ‘x’ means ‘plus’, ‘+‘means ‘divided by’ and ‘÷‘ means ‘minus’, than the value of 14— l0 x 4 ÷ 16 + 8 is—
(A) 134
(B) 142
(C) 6
(D) 2
Ans. (B)
10. In a club, 20 per cent of the members own only two cars each, 40% of the remaining own 3 cars each and the remaining members own only one car each. Which of the following statements is definitely true from the given statements ?
(A) Only 20% of the total members own three cars each
(B) 48% of the total members own one car each
(C) 60% of the total members own at least two cars each
(D) 80% of the total members own at least one car
Ans. (B)
11. “The Journalists who indulge in yellow journalism should be put behind the bar”. Which of the following would be the strongest argument against this suggestion?
(A) There is bound to be a strong opposition from press
(B) Why only journalists ? What about politicians ?
(C) We should concentrate on other major issues of national importance
(D) Yellow journalism is nothing but little essential spice added to actual happenings around us.
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 12-14): In a village of Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh, only two types of people live who belong to a tribal class. The first type is known as class A, while the other is known as class B. In that village, there is no other type of person except these two. The activities of both types of people are governed by perfectly patterned norms of social behaviour. Each person of the tribe has to obey the norms. They are rigid about this.
As far as marriage is concerned, the following norms are to be followed—
I. The people of class A cannot marry any other member of their own class though they can marry members of class B.
II. After being married, each male member ceases to be a member of that class in which he was born but, automatically, he becomes the member of the other class to which his wife belongs.
III. As far as fema1esare concerned, they remain the members qf their own class after being married.
IV. On his birth, the child automatically becomes the member of his mother’s
V. When any male member becomes widower or divorcee, then he again belongs to the group in which he was born.
VI. No body can marry more than one person according to social laws.
12. One boy, who was born in class B (boy and his wife both can have married and unmarried brothers), which of the following is true—
(A) Can have his uncle which from any class
(B) Can have his daughter in class B
(C) Can have a before divorced son in class B
(D) Can have a son-in-law born in class A
Ans. (C)
13. Which of the following marriage is not permissible according to the social laws?
(A) Any boy of class B marries his father’s sister
(B) Any girl of class B marries his mother’s brother
(C) Any widower born class A marries his brother’s widow
(D) Any widower marries his wife’s sister
Ans. (B)
14. Any class B female can have?
I. Grand father born in class A
II. Grand mother born in class A
(A) Only I can be true
(B) Only II can be true
(C) Either I or II ca be true
(D) Neither I or II can be true
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 15—19): Trace out the missing number in each of the following questions—
15.          6, 8, 10, 11, 14, 14,?
(A) 116
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 25
Ans. (B)
16.          759, 871, 647, 1095?
(A) 199
(B) 1191
(C) 334
(D) 542
Ans. (A)
17.           15, 7,?, 14, 60, 28, 120
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 45
Ans. (C)
18.          13, 15, 15, 17, 17, 17, ?
(A) 21
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 19
Ans. (D)
19.              1, 1, 2, 4, 3, ?, 4, 16
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 20—24): These questions consist of two parts. The first has some specific relationship between two words. For establishing same relation in the second part, select an appropriate word from the given alternatives.
20. Food : Eat : :Water:?
(A) Swallow
(B) Drink
(C) Flow
(D) Fire
Ans. (B)
21. Teacher: Students: Doctor:?
(A) Medicine
(B) Patients
(C) Dispensary
(D) Hospital
Ans. (B)
22. Butter: Bread : : Bark: ?
(A) Skin
(B) Shed
(C) Tree
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
23. Refrigerator: Cool: : Oven:?
(A) Cook
(B) Warm
(C) Heat
(D) Kitchen
Ans. (B)
24. Coal: Engine: : Wax:?
(A) Lamp
(B) Bulb
(C) Torch
(D) Candle
Ans. (D)
25. If A = 2, B = 3 and C = 4 and so on, which word do the numbers 9, 2, 15, 5 represent?
Ans. (A)

General Knowledge Practice paper for ICAR ASRB Assistants preliminary exam

General Knowledge Practice paper for ICAR ASRB Assistants preliminary exam
ICAR Assistant Recruitment Vacancies Test Sample Papers
Practice paper GK for Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board ASRB Assistants
1. The climate of a place depends on several things, four of which are given below. Which of these is most important?
A. Distance from sea
B. Direction of wind
C. Latitude
D. Ocean streams
2. If a person in the western hemisphere crosses the International Dateline on April 9, what will be the date when he reaches the eastern hemisphere?
A. April 9
B. April 10
C. April 8
D. April 11.
3. Which of the following States borders the maximum number of States?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Assam
D. Haryana
4. Which of the following sports activities was organized in India in 1982?
A. Olympic Games
B. Common Wealth Games
C. Asian Games
D. None of these
5. The acronym INSAT stands for:
A. India Satellite
B. Indian National Satellite
C. Indian National Salt Training
D. None of these
6. CSIR is related with—
A. Agricultural research
B. Industrial research
C. Defence research organisation
D. Road research
7. Lunar eclipse occurs when
A. The Sun comes in between the Moon and the Earth
B. the Moon comes in between the Earth and the Sun
C. the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon
D. None of the above
8. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is located at
A. Zenewa
B. Hague
C. Paris
D. London
9. The chemical formula of Baking Soda is
A. Na2CO3.10H20
C. Na2CO3.H20
10. Which one of the following is used to stop bleeding?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin K
11. Rober’s Cup is associated with
A. Tennis
B. Football
C. Volleyball
D. Basket ball
12. Match the following
A. Tehri Dam 1. Ganga
B. SardarSarovar 2. Vias and Satluj
C. Indira Gandhi Canal 3. Narmada
D. NagarjunaSagar 4. Krishna
5. Bhagirathi
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 5 3 2 4
B. 5 3 2 1
C. 5 3 4 2
D. 5 3 1 2
13. Normal telephone line used for internet utility is called
(a) Voice Portal
(b) Voice Line
(c) Voice Net
(d) Voice Telephone
14. The abbreviation SITE stands for:
(a) South Indian Trade Estate
(b). State Institute of Technology and Engineering
(c) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(d) System for international Technology and Engineering S
15. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which of the following countries?
A. Australia
B. Cuba
C. Ghana
D. Philippines
16. The association of sea anemone and hermit crab is called as
A. Mutualism
B. parasitism
C. symbiosis
D. commensalisms
17. Shannon – Weaver index is used to indicate
A. Biodiversity
B. Air pollution level
C. Water pollution
D. Importance of species
18. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
A. Sulphur
B. Selenium
C. Bromium
D. Phosphorus
19. Consider the following statements:
1. In November, 2006 DRDO successfully conducted the Interception test using Prithvi II missile.B.
2. Prithvi II is a surface to- surface missile and -can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks.
Which of the statements, given above is a correct
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
20. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (www)?
A. Edward Kasner
B. Bill Gates
C. Tim Burners Lee
D. Ajim Premji
21. Sometimes secondary pollutants like ozone PAN (proxy acyl nitrate) HNO3 H2 SO4 formed from primary pollutants are more toxic than primary pollutants. This phenomenon of increased toxicity in pollutants is called
(a) Synergism
(b) Green house effect
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Biomagnifications
22. When and where the Mumbai and KoIkata stations inaugurated by the India Broadcasting Company
(a) 1927
(b) 1925
(c) 1928
(d) 1926
23. Acid rain is caused by sulphur oxides, nitrogen oxides and hydrochloric acid which are produced by industries, automobiles and Thermal power plants using Fossil Fuels.It causes.
(a) Death of fish due to clogging of their gills by exudation of large amount of mucus caused by solubility and availability of toxic metals like aluminium
(b) Defoliation chlorosis, necrosis of plant foliage
(c) Leaching of mineral salts in soil and decolourisation of red stone of Redfort
(d) All the above
24. Maximum threat to the world is from
(a) Water Pollution
(b) Soil erosion
(c) Ozone hole
(d) Global warming
25. The comparative study of communication and automatic control processes in mechanical or electronic systems, e.g machines or computers and biological systems, e.g the nervous system of animals, especially humans and birds is termed as
(a) Retrieval of information
(b) Analysis of mutually accepted terms
(c). Cybernetics
(d) Planned and compilled study
26. In which .year was ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1969
27. If the green house effect becomes real and melts Polar ice, which one Of the following regions will first disappear under water.
(a) Islands of Kiribati
(b) Mauritius
(c) Maldives
(d) Hawaie Island
28. Which pollutant gas is released by cud chewing cattle.
(a) CO
(b) CH4
(c) NO2
(d) CO2
29. Where is the memorial for unknown soldiers?
A. Gate way of India
B. India Gate
C. Tirmurti
D. Jalianwala Bagh
30. Who was not a contemporary of Tughlaq?
A. Amir Khusroe
B. Ziyauddin Barani
C. Ainul Mulk Multani
D. Bahlol Lodhi
31. Which Governor General declared ‘Sari’ illegal and punishable by court?
A. ‘William Bentinck
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Reading
D. Lord Ripon
32. Gandhiji has written his autobiography in which language?
A. Hindi
B. Marathi
C. English
D. Gujarati
33. The quorum required in the Rajya Sabha is—
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 160
34. Which one of the following is set up by the Constitution of India?
A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
C. Zonal Councils
D. Powers of president
35. Toda is a—
A. Tribes
B. Logo
C. Name
D. Game
36. Netherlands’ Currency is—
A. Peso.
B. Pesata
C. Rupiab
D. Guilder’
37. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. W.C. Bannerjee
B. A.O. Hume
C. Sardar Patel
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
38. Which temperature zone is known as the surplus zone?
A. Tropical
B. Temperate
C. Polar
D. All of these
39. Subroto Cup is related to—
A. Badminton
B. Hockey
C. Football
D. Polo
40. Large ‘deposits of uranium are found in—
A. Canada
C. Australia
D. India
41. Tiger Wood is related to—.
A. Polo
B. Snooker
C. Golf
D. Tennis
42. Indira Gold Cup is given in—
A. Football
B. Hockey
C. Cricket
D. Swimming
43. When did. Indian Hockey Team win gold medal in Olympic last?
A. 1988
B. 1980
C. 1984
D. 1976
44. Which is called the King of Fruits?
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Mango
D. Pomegranate
45. National Films Awards were instituted in the year—
A. 1950
B. 1954
C. 1961
D. 1969
46. The. Indian Constitution makes India
A. Federal
B. Unitary
C. Rigid
D. Partly unitary Partly Fedral
47. In which ocean is the Cromwell current found?
A. Pacific ocean
B. Atlantic ocean
C. Indian ocean
D. Arctic ocean
48. Which one of the following rivers has its source outside the Indian Territory?
A Jhelum
B. Beas
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
49. Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials?
A. Rayon
B. Nylon
C. Polyester
D Polystyrene
50. Chandrayan- 1 was launched from—
A. Bengaluru
B. Chennai
C. Sri Han Kota
D. None of these

Monday, May 16, 2011

UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 Part 1

UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 part 1
CIVIL Engineering Objective questions
Solved objective civil engineering UPSC IES Paper
Indian Engineering Services UPS Solved Papers 2010
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be .
A RA = —10 kN and RC = —15 kN
B. RA =10kN and RC=—55 kN
C. RA =—15kN and RC=—10kN
D. RA =15kN ànd RCc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
B. 1/4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘Ls and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length Lh, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is
49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero