Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam

Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam
Sample Questions on General Awareness
Very useful For BED Entrance exams
Can be used as practice papers for other entrance exams
1. The aim of the ISRO,s OCEANSAT-2 satellite is
(A) to provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) to aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) to aid weathermen to forecast cylones and weather conditions
(D) All of the above
D

2. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
A

3. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(A) Aircraft carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
B

4. The age of a tree can be calculated by
(A) number of branches
(B) its height
(C) girth of its trunk
(D) number of its annual rings
D

5. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise.
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers.
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output.
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase.
D

6. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
D

7. A rolling plan refers to a plan which
(A) does not change its targets every year.
(B) changes its allocations every year.
(C) changes its allocations and targets every year.
(D) changes only its targets every year.
C

8. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is
(A) open market operations
(B) credit rationing
(C) change in reserve ratio
(D) bank rate policy
D

9. Laissez-faire is a feature of
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
C

10. Which one of the-following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
D

11. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
B

12. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
B

13. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
C

14. According to J.A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their ______ activities.
(A innovative
(B) risk taking
(C)risk averting
(D) hard work
A

15. Demonstration effect means
(A) effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) effect of entertainment
(D effect of an experiment
D

16. Homogeneous product is a feature
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
C

17. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(Q) Directive Principles of State Policy
D

.18. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic ‘assessment of the Government”
(A) Dr. B Ambedkar
(B) Shri B.N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A

19. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
A

20. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is
(A)30 minutes
(B) one hour
(C)two hours
(D) unspecified
B

21. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
C

22. When will demand become a grant?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
C

23. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
A

24. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
D

25. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice- President can be heard by
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
C

256. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of
(A) the village, the block and the district levels
(B) the mandal and the district levels
(C) the village, the district and the State levels
(D) the village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
A

27. Which of the following has banned ‘floor Crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
A

28. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to
(A) those sections of society which pay Income-tax.
(B) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced.
(C) those sections of ‘the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) all sections of upper castes of the society
B

29. When was the Panchtantra written?
(A) Maurya period
(B) Kanishka period
(C) Gupta period
(D) Harsha period
C

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BEd Entrance Exam previous questions Commerce group

BEd Entrance Exam previous questions Commerce group
B.Ed. Entrance Question Bank
BEd Exam online Solved Paper prepare for BEd Entrance by Answering old and previous Questions
1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)

2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)

3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)

4. Balance in ‘Nazrana a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P & L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)

5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on —
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)

6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)

8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost + 25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)

10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonored, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)

12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)

13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)

14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4: 4: 3: 2
(B) 4: 3: 2: 1
(C) 5: 4: 3: 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3: 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)

16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60,000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24,000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21, 000
(B) Rs.9, 000
(C) Rs. 15,000
(D) Rs. 6,000
Ans. (D)

17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(B) Rs.600000
(C) Rs. 800000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)

18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)

19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking
company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)

20. If accrued outstanding premium is given in• the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

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BED entrance exam previous Solved Questions Logical & Analytical Reasoning

BED entrance exam previous Solved Questions Logical & Analytical Reasoning
B. Ed. Entrance Practice Material to prepare for the exam
Solved Question on verbal Reasoning
Question papers, exam papers Logical & Analytical Reasoning

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?

ACE, FGH ? PON

(A) KKK

(B) JKI

(C) HJH

(D) IKL

Ans. (A)

2. Typist: Typewriter: Writer:?

(A) Script

(B) Pen

(C) Paper

(D) Book

Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?

(A) Furniture

(B) Forest

(C) Fire

(D) Carpenter

Ans. (D)

4. acme : mace : alga:?

(A) glaa

(B) gaal

(C) laga

(D) gala

Ans. (D)

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?

(A) UTOPTU

(B) UOTUPT

(C) TUOUTP

(D) TUOTUP

Ans. (D)

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—

(A) Teacher

(B) School

(C) Student

(D) Tuition

Ans. (C)

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—

S, V, Y, B, ?

(A) C

(B) D

(C) E

(D)G

Ans. (C)

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?

3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20

(A) 11

(B) 10

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans. (D)

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

(A) IYZ

(B) HWX

(C) IWX

(D) JWX

Ans. (C)

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?

1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?

(A) 48

(C) 52

(B) 49

(D) 56

Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.

11. (A) Bokaro

(B) Jamshedpur

(C) Bhilai

(D) Agra

Ans. (D)

12. (A) January

(B) February

(C) July

(D) December

Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible

(B) Panchsheel

(C) Geeta

(D) Quran

Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star

(B) Sun

(C) Sky

(D) Moon

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?

(A) N

(B) L

(C) O

(D) None of these

Ans. (D)

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?

(A) V

(B) T

(C) W

(D) Y

Ans. (B)

17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?

(A) V

(B) X

(C) W

(D) I

Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 20): Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

18. (A) Green

(B) Red

(C) Colour

(D) Orange

Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit

(B) Crocodile

(C) Earthworm

(D) Snail

Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo

(B) Chess

(C) Ludo

(D) Carrom

Ans. (A)

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IGNOU BEd Sample paper Subject Competence :Science

IGNOU BEd Sample paper Subject Competence :Science
sample question paper or Entranct Test for admission to B.Ed Programme
IGNOU BEd Exam Model Paper for BEd Entrance Subject Competence :Science

1. ML²T² is the dimensional formula of—

(A) Work done only

(B) Potential energy only

(C) Kinetic energy only

(D) All are correct

Ans. (D)

2. A car covers the first half of its distance between two places at a speed of 40 km/hour and the second half of the distance at the speed of 60 km/hour. The average speed of the car over the whole journey is then—

(A) 50 km/hour

(B) 48 km/hour

(C) 45 km/hour

(D) None of these

Ans. (B)

3. The energy possessed by a wound watch spring is—

(A) Zero

(B) Kinetic

(C) Potential

(D) Both kinetic and potential

Ans. (C)

4. Two identical balls moving in opposite directions undergo a collision. The two stick

together. The combined mass is at rest. This collision is—

(A) Perfectly elastic

(B) Perfectly in elastic

(C) Partially elastic

(D) None of these

Ans. (B)

5. A cylinder is moving down an inclined plane. Then its velocity of translation is—

(A) More when it slides without rolling

(B) More when it rolls without sliding

(C) Same when it slides without rolling or rolls without sliding

(D) Maximum when it slides as well as rolls

Ans. (B)

6. Two 1 kg mass, 1 meter apart will attract each other with a force of—

(A) 6.67 x l0 newton

(B) 6.67 x 10 newton

(C) 1 newton

(D) None of these

Ans. (A)

7. Two identical wires A and B of same length have their radii in the ratio of 2: 1. The ratio of stress produced in them under same

external force is—

(A) 2:1

(B) 1:2

(C) 1:4

(D) 4: 1

Ans. (C)

8. An example of Lewis acid is—

(A) AlCl₃

(B) NaCl

(C) MgCl₂

(D) SHCl₄

Ans. (A)

9. In C + H₂O —> CO+ H₂; H₂O acts as—

(A) Reducing agent

(B) Oxidizing agent

(C) Both reducing and oxidizing agent

(D) None of these

Ans. (B)

10. An aqueous solution of methanol have vapour pressure—

(A) Equal to that of water

(B) Equal to that of methanol

(C) More than that of water

(D)) Less than that of water

Ans. (C)

11. A solution is which no more solute can be dissolved is known as—

(A) Saturated solution

(B) Unsaturated solution

(C) Supersaturated solution

(D) Dilute solution

Ans. (A)

12. Percentage of hydrogen is maximum in—

(A) CH₄

(B) C₂H₄

(C) C₆H₆

(D) C₂H₆

Ans. (A)

13. The molar concentration of 32 gms of oxygen in 10 liters is—

(A) 3.2 mole per liter

(B) 3.2 gms per liter

(C) 0.10 mole per liter

(D) None of these

Ans. (C)

14. The ionic product of water will increase if—

(A) Pressure is decreased

(B) H ⁺ ions are added

(C) OH ^- ions are added

(D) Temperature is increased

Ans. (D)

15. What is Penicillium?

(A) Virus

(B) Algae

(C) Fungi

(D) Bacteria

Ans. (C)

16. Plants of Funaria are commonly known as—

(A) Thallose

(B) Foliose

(C) Thallose and foliose

(D) Terrestrial moss

Ans. (D)

17. Tapeworm has no digestive system because—

(A) It is parasite

(B) It lives in intestine

(C) It does not need food

(D) It absorbs its food from general body surface

Ans. (D)

18. Which of the following does not occur in loam soil?

(A) Chalk

(B) Clay

(C) Sand

(D) Slit

Ans. (A)

19. Function of stem is—

(A) Storage

(B) To produce branches and leaves

(C) Conduction

(D) All of the above

Ans. (D)

20. Which of the following process keeps plant cool?

(A) Gastration

(B) Transpiration

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Translocation

Ans. (B)

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