SSC Model test Physics, Chemistry,Mathematics and Telecommunication For SI And ASI telecom

SSC Model test Physics, Chemistry,Mathematics and Telecommunication For SI And ASI telecom
A Practice paper For SI telecom and ASI telecom Consisting of
60 Questions on Physics, Chemistry,Mathematics and Telecommunication

Physics

1. Choose the wrong statement.

(a) l kg wt=9.8N

(b) Momentum is a vector quantity

(c) Force is always conserved

(d) Momentum is conserved in the absence of an external force

Ans. (b)

2. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon

(a) its mass will change

(b) its weight will change, but not mass

(c) both mass and weight will change

(d) its mass and weight will remain the same

Ans. (b)

3. The weight of a body would not be zero

(a) at the centre of the earth

(b) during a free fall

(c) in interplanetary space

(d) on a frictionless surface

Ans. (d)

4. A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore the boat will

(a) move away from the shore

(b) remain stationary

(c) move towards the shore

(d) sink

Ans. (a)

5. A driver accelerates his car first at the rate of 1.8 m/s² and then at the rate of 1.2 m/s². The ratio of the forces exerted by the engines will be respectively equal to

(a) 2:3

(b) 1:2

(c) 2:1

(d) 3:2

Ans. (d)

6. During a planned manoeuvre in a space flight, a free-floating astronaut A pushes another free- floating astronaut B, the mass of A being greater than that of B. Then, the magnitude of the force exerted by astronaut A on astronaut B is

(a) equal to zero

(b) equal to the force exerted by B on A

(c) greater than the force exerted by B on A

(d) less than the force exerted by B on A

Ans. (b)

7. In the above problem, during a push

(a) the acceleration of A is greater than that of B

(b) the acceleration of A is less than that of B

(c) neither is accelerated

(d) their accelerations are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction

Ans. (b)

8. The force needed to produce an acceleration of 6 m/s² in a ball of mass 4 kg will be

(a) 24N

(b) 30N

(c) 32N

(d) 36N

Ans. (a)

9. The SI unit of density is

(a) kg m^-3

(b) g cm^-3

(c) kg wt cm^-2

(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

10. Two spheres of the same size are made of the same metal, but one is hollow

and the other is solid. They are heated to the same temperature. Then,

(a) the hollow sphere will expand more

(b) the solid sphere will expand more

(c) both spheres will expand almost equally

(d) only the solid sphere will expand

Ans. (c)

11. When an inflated type bursts, the air escaping out

(a) will get heated up

(b) will be cooled

(c) will not undergo any change in its temperature

(d) will be liquefied

Ans. (b)

12. When the momentum of a body increases by 10%. its K.E. increases by

(a) 20%

(b) 40%

(c) 44%

(d) none of these

Ans. (d)

13. Watt sec represents the unit for

(a) energy

(b) power

(c) force

(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

14. The atomic number of an element is determined by

(a) The number of electrons in one atom

(b) The number of neutrons in one atom

(c) The valency of the element

(d) The number of protons in one atom

Ans. (a)

15. The value of e/m of an electron was measured by:

(a) Millikan

(c) Dalton

(b) J.J. Thomson

(d) Rutherford

Ans. (a)

Chemistry

16. Which of the following is not a noble gas?

(a) Helium

(b) Xenon

(c) Radium

(d) Radon

Ans. (c)

17. Which of the following properties generally decrease along a period?

(a) Ionization energy

(b) Electron affinity

(c) Metallic character

(d) Valency

Ans. (c)

18. The elements in the middle of the periodic table are called

(a) Metalloids

(b) Transition elements

(c) Rare earth element

(d) Noble gases

Ans. (b)

19. The fractional distillation of coal tar yields

(a) Carbon disulphide

(b) carbon tetrachloride

(c) Kerosene oil

(d) Benzene

Ans. (d)

20. The formula of ethyne is

(a) C₂H₂

(b) C₆H₆

(c) C₂H₄

(d) C₂H₆

Ans. (a)

21. Water gas consists of

(a) Water vapour and coal dust

(b) a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

(c) a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen

(d) Water vapour and methane

Ans. (b)

22. The reaction of one mol of bromine with ethyne yields

(a) BrCH₂—CH₂Br

(b) BrCH = CHBr

(c) Br₂CH—CHBr₂

(d) CH₃—CH₂Br

Ans. (b)

23. The main constituent of LPG is

(a) Methane

(b) Ethane

(c) Propane

(d) Butane

Ans. (d)

24. The general formula to represent alkenes is

(a) C_nH_2n+1

(b) C_nH_2n

(c) C_nH_2n+2

(d) C_nH_2n-2

Ans. (c)

25. Molecular mass of Butane is

(a) 54

(b) 56

(c) 58

(d) 60

Ans. (c)

26. Which of the following ions is furnished by acids in aqueous solution?

(a) OH^- ions

(b) H⁺ ions

(c) H₃O⁺ ions

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

27. Which of the following is not an organic acid?

(a) Tartaric acid

(b) Oxalic acid

(c) Ascorbic acid

(d) Nitric acid

Ans. (d)

28. Acids turn blue litmus

(a) Green

(b) Red

(c) Yellow

(d) orange

Ans. (b)

29. Acidity of aluminum hydroxide is

(a) l

(b) 2

(c) 4

(d) 3

Ans. (d)

30. pH of tomato juice is 4, that means it is

(a) basic

(b) acidic

(c) neutral

(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

Maths

31. A man loses 12% of his money and after spending 70% of the remainder, he was left

with Rs 210. The money that he had at the beginning is

(a) Rs 810

(b)Rs 800

(c) Rs 790

(d) Rs 780

Ans. (b)

32. The salaries of A, B and C together amount to Rs 333, if they spend 80%, 85% and

75% of their respective salaries. If their savings are 7 : 6 : 9, then their respective

salaries are

(a) Rs 102, Rs 118, Rs 113

(b) Rs 105, Rs 120, Rs 108

(c) Rs 85, Rs 125, Rs 123

(d)  none of these

Ans. (b)

33. In an examination, 34% of the candidates fail in Arithmetic and 42% in English. If

20% fail in Arithmetic and English, the percentage of those passing in both subjects is

(a) 44

(b) 45

(c) 46

(d) 47

Ans. (a)

34. A person purchases 20 litres of juice at Rs 2.20 per litre and diluted it with water to

make the contents 22 litres. In order to earn 10 % profit he should sell the juice at

(a) Rs 2.20

(b) Rs 2.00

(c) Rs 2.35

(d) Rs 2.40

Ans. (a)

35. A man deposited Rs 8,000 in a bank for 3 years at 5% per annum compound interest.

After 3 years he will get

(a) Rs 8,800

(b) Rs 9,000

(c) Rs 9,200

(d) Rs 9,261

Ans. (d)

36. A person walks from his house at a speed of 4 km/hr and reaches his school 5 minutes

late. If his speed has been 5 km/hr, he would have reached 10 minutes earlier. The

distance of the school from his house is

(a) 5km

(b) 6km

(c) 7km

(d) 8km

Ans. (a)

37. A sum of money at compound interest becomes double of itself in 15 yrs. The rate of

interest is

(a) 5.1%

(b) 5%

(c) 4.7%

(d) 4.8%

Ans. (c)

38. A man sells two horses at0the same price. On one he makes a profit of 10% and on

the other he suffers a loss of 10%. On the whole he

(a) makes no profit no loss

(b) makes a profit of 1%

(c) suffers a loss of 1%

(d) suffers a loss of 2%

Ans. (c)

39. 3 men can do as much work as 5 women 10 children. If 40 children can finish

work in 7 days, then 6 men, 5 women and 5 children will finish the same work in

(a) 8 days

(b) 9 days

(c) 10 days

(d) none

Ans. (a)

40.  90 km per hour is same as

(a) 50 m/sec

(b) 25 m/sec

(c) 25 m/min

(d) 50 m/min

Ans. (b)

41. The solution of the differential equation

d²y/dx² – 2dy/dx + y = 0 is -

(a) y = (c₁ + c₂x)e^x

(b) y = c₁e^x

(c) y = x e ^x

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

42. The number of non-empty subsets of the set

{1, 2, 3, 4} is—

(a) 16

(b) 12

(c) 15

(d) 8

Ans. (c)

43. The tangent to the curve x²/a² + xy²/b² = 1 at the point (a, 0) -

(a) Makes an angle of 30° with x-axis

(b) Is parallel to x-axis

(c) Makes an angle of 45° with x-axis

(d) Is perpendicular to x-axis

Ans. (d)

44. The expression (sin ø + cos ø) has the maximum value, when ø is equal to—

(a) 30°

(b) 45°

(c) 60°

(d) 90°

Ans. (b)

45. The number log₂ 7 is—

(a) An integer

(b) A rational number

(c) An irrational number

(d) A prime number

Ans. (c)

Communication

46.In frequency modulation, frequency is

a. constant

b. zero

c. variable

d.one

Ans:c

47.  In frequency modulation, amplitude is

a.constant

b.zero

c.one

d.variable

Ans:a

48.  FSK is

a)      frequency shift keying

b)      frequency shine keying

c)      frequency shine keyboard

d)     none of these

Ans:a

49. The frequency range of 1GHZ to 30GHZ are referred as

a)      sound waves

b)      micro waves

c)      mini waves

d)     none of these

Ans:b

50.  Discrete signal is represented by

a)      coding

b)      modulation

c)      demodulation

d)     sequence of samples

Ans:d

51.In amplitude modulation, frequency is

a)      constant

b)      zero

c)      variable

d)     one

Ans:a

52. Low pass filter attenuates

a)      high frequencies

b)      low frequencies

c)      medium frequencies

d)     none of these

Ans:a

53. Micro wave communication is used in

a)      TNEB

b)      telephone networks

c)      industries

d)     none of these

Ans:b

54. In optical communication, carrier is

a)      electromagnetic waves in optical frequency

b)      electromagnetic waves in maximum frequency

c)      electromagnetic waves in minimum frequency

d)     none of these

Ans:a

55.  Optical fibre is fabricated by

a)      glass

b)      copper

c)      aluminium

d)     none of these

Ans:a

56.which one of the following is  the type of ‘superheterodyning’

a.Radio transmitter

b.TV

c.radio receiver

d.radar

Ans:c

57.Primary colours are

a.red,blue.green

b.green,white.blue

c.blue,red.yellow

d.none of these

Ans:a

58. Sound signals in TV are

a)      amplitude modulated

b)      dc modulated

c)      frequency modulated

d)     a and c

Ans:c

59.Communication is a process of

a)      transfer of information

b)      transfer of energy

c)      transfer of channel

d)     none of these

Ans:a

60.  Modulation index is

a)      Vm/Vc

b)      Vc/Vm

c)      Vm/Ic

d)     None of these

Ans:a

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chemistry mcq with answers

chemistry mcq with answers
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN CHEMISTRY
Chemistry Test and Chemistry Quiz
1. A solution has H ion concentration 0.0005 M. Its pOH is
(a) 8.279
(b) 12.285
(c) 10.699
(d) 13.335
Ans. (c)

2. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min when was 50% of the reaction
Completed?
(a) 24 min
(b) 16 min
(c) 8 min
(d) 48 min Ans. (b)

3. Cyano benzene has
(a) 7 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds
(b) 7 sigma and 5 pi bonds
(c) 12 sigma and 6 pi bonds
(d) 13 sigma and 5 pi bonds
Ans. (d)

4. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular mass of X is
(a) 4.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 32.0
(d) 64.0
Ans. (a)

5. When phosphorus reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Disproportionation
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

6. The complete combustion of CH4 gives:
(a) CO + H2
(b) CO + N2
(c) CO2 + H2O
(d) CO + N2O
Ans. (c)

7. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

8. Which one of the following is the true covalent oxide of iodine?
(a) I2O4
(b) I2O5
(c) I2O7
(d) I2O9
Ans. (b)

9. Which of the following two are isostructural?
(a) XeF2, IF2
(b) NH3, BF3
(c) CO3-2, SO3-2
(d) Pd5, ICl5
Ans. (a)

10. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
(a) mer [Co (NH3) 3C13]
(b) cis [PtCl2(NH3 )21
(c) cis K2[PtC12Br2J
(d) Na2 [COC14]
Ans. (c)

11. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

12. Propane on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

13. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

14. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

15. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)
9. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following electrolyte has least molar conductivity?
(a). BeCl2
(b) BC13
(c) LiC1
(d) NaCl
Ans. (b)

11. Gold number is associated with
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) Purple of cassius
(c) Protective colloid
(d) Amount of pure gold
Ans. (c)

12. H2O2 is
(a) Poor polar solvent than water
(b) Better polar solvent than H20
(c) Both have equal polarity
(d) Better polar solvent but its strong auto oxidizing ability limits its use as such
Ans. (c)

13. Sodium metal is kept under
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Alcohol
(c) Water
(d) Acids
Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Coal gas
(b) Water gas
(c) Producer gas
(d) Carbon dioxide gas
Ans. (a)

15. Which out of the following is called sugar of lead?
(a) Pb(NO3) 2
(b) PbC12
(c) PbCO3 ‘Pb (OH) 2
(d) Pb(CH3COO) 2
Ans. (d)

16. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

17. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

18. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

19. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

20. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)

21. Among the following the weakest base is:
(a) H-
(b) CH-
(c) CH3O
(d) cl-
Ans. (d)

22. If 2.0 g of a radioactive isotope has half-life of 20 h, the half-life of 0.25 g of the same substance is
(a) 20h
(b) 80h
(c) 5h
(d) l0h
Ans. (a)

23. K02 is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarine because it:
(a) Eliminates moisture
(b) Absorbs CO2
(c) Produces ozone
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

24. On heating quick lime with coke in an electric furnace we get:
(a) Ca and CO2
(b) CaCO3
(c) CaO
(d) CaC2
Ans. (d)

25. The material used in warfare in making smoke screens for military purposes is:
(a) PH3
(b) PC15
(c) SiCl4
(d) NH3
Ans. (a)

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free online chemistry test

free online chemistry test
Free online chemistry practice test for all entrance exams
Free Online Chemistry Sample Paper
Free online chemistry practice test for PMT PET

1. How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cc of 0.1 N HCl (Na = 23)

(a) 60g

(b) 6g

(c) 4g

(d) 40g

Ans. (b)

2. Order of reaction is decided by:

(a) molecularity

(b) pressure

(c) temperature

(d) mechanism of reaction s well as relative concentration of reactants

Ans. (d)

3. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is:

(a) polymerisation

(b) condensation

(c) addition

(d) substitution

Ans. (b)

4. The simplest way to check whether a system is colloidal is by:

(a) electrodialyis

(b) finding out particle size

(c) Tyndall effect

(d) Brownian movement

Ans. (c)

5. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by:

(a) small cation and large anion

(b) large cation and small anion

(c) large cation and large anion

(d) small cation and small anion

Ans. (a)

6. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO₂^- is:

(a) sp³

(b) sp²

(c) sp

(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

7. The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is:

(a) 0.46 N

(b) 0.23 N

(c) 2.3 N

(d) 4.6 N

Ans. (d)

8. A 500 g tooth-paste sample has 0.2kg fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluoride in terms of ppm level?

(a) 250

(b) 200

(c) 400

(d) 1000

Ans. (c)

9. At 30°C the solubility of Ag₂CO₃ (K _sp = 8 x 10^-12) would be greatest in one litre

of:

(a) 0.05 M Na₂CO₃

(b) 0.05 M AgNO₃

(c) pure water

(d) 0.05 M NH₃

Ans. (d)

10. Lithopone, a substitute of white lead is:

(a) BaSO₄ + ZnS

(b) BaSO₄ + ZnO

(c) PbCO₃. Pb(OH)₂

(d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

11. In Nessler’s reagent the active ion is:

(a) Hg⁺

(b) Hg²⁺

(c) [HgI]^2-

(d) [Hg1₄]^2-

Ans. (d)

12. The product obtained by means of HgSO₄ + H₂SO₄ from 1-butyne would be:

(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

(b) CH₃CH₂COCH₃

(c) CH₃CH₂CHO + HCHO

(d) CH₃CH₂COOH + HCOOH

Ans. (b)

13. The increasing order of acidity among phenol, p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is:

(a) phenol, p-methyl phenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol

(b) p-methyl phenol, phenol, in-nitrophenol, – p-nitrophenol

(c) p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

(d) m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

Ans. (b)

14. Bismarck brown is example of:

(a) phthalein dye

(b) azodye

(c) anthraquinone dye

(d) nitro dye

Ans. (b)

15. Which of the following species planar shape?

(a) CH₃^-

(b) CH₃⁺

(c) BF₄^-

(d) SiH₄

Ans. (b)

16. Mond’s process is used for preparing:

(a) Ni

(b) Co

(c) NH₃

(d) H₂SO₄

Ans. (a)

17. The most abundant salt of sodium is its:

(a) chloride

(b) nitrate

(c) sulphate

(d) phosphate

Ans. (a)

18. A smuggler could not carry gold by depositing iron on the gold surface since:

(a) gold is denser

(b) iron rusts

(c) gold has higher reduction potential than iron

(d) gold has lower reduction potential than iron

Ans. (c)

19. The ionic product of water will increase if:

(a) pressure is decreased

(b) H⁺ ions are added

(c) OH^- ions are added

(d) temperature is increased

Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?

(a) Na⁺

(b) Mg²⁺

(c) O2^2-

(d) C1^-

Ans. (d)

21. From which of the following t-butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium bromide?

(a) HCHO

(b) CH₃COCH₃

(c) CH₃CHO

(d) CO₂

Ans. (b)

22. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is:

(a) Angular

(b) Linear

(c) Tetrahedral

(d) T-shaped

Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following metal is found in gun metal, monel metal and brass alloy?

(a) Zn

(b) Hg

(c) Fe

(d) Cu

Ans. (d)

24. According to Lewis the ligands are:

(a) Acidic in nature

(b) Basic in nature

(c) Neither acidic nor basic

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

25. Diamond is a:

(a) Ionic crystal

(b) Covalent crystal

(c) Metallic crystal

(d) Molecular crystal

Ans. (b)

26. An aqueous solution freezes at— 0.186°C, what is the elevation in boiling point?

(k_f.= 1.86, k_b 0.512)

(a) 0.186

(b) 0.512

(c) 0.05 12

(d) 0.86

Ans. (c)

27. The reference electrode is made from which of the following?

(a) ZnC1₂

(b) CuSO₄

(c) Hg₂Cl₂

(d) HgCl₂

Ans. (c)

28. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO₂ released at SW on heating 9.85 g of BaCO₃(at. wt. of Ba = 137) will be:

(a) 1.12L

(b) 0.84L

(c) 2.24 L

(d) 4.06 L

Ans. (a)

29. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600 nm is:

(a) 5×10¹⁴Hz

(b) 5×10¹⁷Hz

(c) 2.5×10¹⁴Hz

(d) 2.5xl0⁷Hz

Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum numbers of 4 d electrons?

(a) 4, 3, 2, + 1/2

(b) 4, 2, 1, 0

(c) 4, 3, – 2, + 1/2

(d) 4, 2, 1, – ½

Ans. (d)

31. A mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by:

(a) Sublimation

(b) Crystallization

(c) Filtration

(d) Distillation

Ans. (a)

32. Number of gram of oxygen in 322 g of Na2SO4-10H20 is:

(a) 20.8

(b) 224

(c) 208

(d) 22.4

Ans. (b)

33. During the extraction of silver which of the following is formed?

(a) Na[Ag(CN) ₂]

(b) Na₂ [Ag(CN) ₂]

(c) Na₂4[Ag(CN) ₂]

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

34. The electronic configuration of Sc₂₁ is:

(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d2

(b) Is2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4sO 3d3

(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1 3d2

(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d1

Ans. (d)

35. The oxidation state of Fe in brown complex [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO⁴ is

(a) +3

(b) +4

(C) +2

(d) +1

Ans. (c)

Ans. (b)

36. The bond order in N⁺₂ is:

(a) 50.5

(b) 11.2

(c) 5.6

(d) 30.2

Ans. (a)

37. When benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO³ and H₂SO⁴ the products is:

(a) 2, 4-dinitrobehzoic acid

(b) 3-nitrobenzoic acid

(c) 1, 3-dinitrobenzoic acid

(d) 2-nitrobenzoic acid

Ans. (b)

38. Which is correct statement about proton?

(a) Proton is the nucleus of deuterium

(b) Proton is alpha particle

(c) Proton is ionised hydrogen molecule

(d) Proton is ionised hydrogen atom

Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following conditions are necessary in preparation of aryl halides?

(a) Low temperature

(b) Absence of sunlight

(c) Presence of halogen carrier

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

40. Which of the following is formed as an intermediate in the conversion of ethanol to ethylene in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄?

(a) CH₃CH₂OSO₃H

(b) CH₃CH

(c) (CH₃CH₂)₂SO₄

(d) CH₃CH

Ans. (b)

41. An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C3H60. It undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with HC1 it gives ‘B’ of molecular formula C H1O ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

(a) propanal and mesitylene

(b) propanone and mesityl oxide

(c) propanone and 2, 6-dimethyl-2, 5 heptadien-4-one

(d) propane and mesitylene oxide

Ans. (c)

42. TUPAC name of CH₂ =CHCN is:

(a) ethenenitrile

(b) vinyl cyanide

(c) cyanoethene

(d) 2-propenenitrile

Ans. (c)

43. Which of the following halogen is purified by sublimation?

(a) F₂

(b) C_l2

(c) Br₂

(d) I₂

Ans. (d)

44. Which one has the lowest boiling point?

(a) NH₃

(b) PH₃

(c) AsH₃

(d) SbH₃

Ans. (b)

45. Proteins on heating with concentratedHNO3 produce yellow colour, this test is known as

(a) Millon’s test

(b) Xanthoprotein test

(c) Hopkin’s test

(d) Ninhydrin test

Ans. (b)

46. The compound which is not coloured is:

(a) K₄Fe(CN)₆

(b) K₃Fe(CN)₆

(c) Na₂CdCI₄

(4) Na₂CuCl₄

Ans. (c)

47. Reduction of nitrobenzene by alkaline sodium arsenite forms

(a) aniline

(b) azobenzene

(c) hydrazobenzene

(d) azoxybenzene

Ans. (d)

48. The types of impurities present in bauxite ore are:

(a) Fe₂O₃

(b) Cu₂O

(c) CO₂

(d) SiO₃

Ans. (a)

49. When calcium salts of dicarboxylic acids are subjected to dry distillation, a cyclic ketone having one carbon atom less is formed. This is called

(a) Clemmensen’s reduction

(b) Dieckmann’s method

(c) Wislicenus method

(d) Freund’s method

Ans. (c)

50. The physical adsorption of gases on the solid surface is due to:

(a) covalent bond

(b) hydrogen bond

(c) ionic bond

(d) van der Waals’ forces

Ans. (d)

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