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UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering
Civil Engineering practice paper IES Exam – Indian Engineering Services
The Engineering Services Examination Sample Paper based on previous Questions

1. For shorter storey height, cheaper form work and better lighting facilities, what is the

recommended slab floor?

(a) T beam and slab

(b) Two way slab

(d) Framed structure

Ans. (c)

2. Usually stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to depth does not exceed which one of the following?

(a) 7

(b) 10

(d) 26

Ans. (c)

3. When is an R.C.C. roof slab designed as a two way slab?

(a) If the slab is continuous over two opposite edges only

(b) If the slab is un-supported at one edge only

(d) If the ratio of spans in two directions is<2

Ans. (d)

4. Which one of the following is correct?

When HYSD bars are used in place of mild steel bars in a beam, the bond strength

(a) does not change

(b) increase

(d) becomes zero

Ans. (b)

5. In a singly reinforced beam, the tensile steel reaches its maximum allowable stress earlier than concrete. What is such a section known as?

(a) Under-reinforced section

(b) Over-reinforced section

(d) Economic section

Ans. (a)

6. Why is the design of a R.C. section as over reinforced undesirable?

(a) It consumes more concrete

(b) It undergoes high strains

(d) Its appearance is good

Ans. (c)

7. Which of the following are the advantages of a crawler mounted power shovel over a rubber-tyred equipment?

1. It can operate on soft and hard soil.

2. It is less expensive than rubber-tyred equipment.

3. It works faster than rubber-tyred equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b)

8. Fill factor range of a power shovel when used for well blasted rock is

(a) 0.9 – 1.0

(b) 0.8 – 0.9

(d) 0.4 – 0.5

Ans. (a)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Facilitation) (Chart)

A. Bar Chart 1. Activity dependencies can be implied

B. Milestone Bar Chart 2. Resource requirement can be depicted

C. W.B.S. 3. Higher level of authority can effect monitoring and control

D. Linked Bar Chart 4. Trade based site supervision can be assigned

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 3 4 1

Ans. (d)

10. Consider the following statements regarding CPM technique of project planning:

1. The critical path consists of those activities for which the total float is zero

2. Independent float is expressed as the difference between total float and the slack at the head event.

3. It is not possible to complete an activity earlier than the crash time

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

11. A compounded bar consists of material A encased in material B. It is tightly secured at the ends. The coefficient of thermal expansion of A is more than that of B. If the temperature of the bar is increased, the stresses induced will be

(a) tensile in both materials

(b) compressive in both materials

(d) compressive in material B and tensile in material A

Ans. (c)

12. What is the assumption in the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams?

(a) Only steel bars will resist tension

(b) Only concrete will resist tension

(d) Both concrete and steel will resist compression

Ans. (c)

13. Which one of the following is correct?

Fully prestressed concrete beams

(a) resist all the working loads by prestress

(b) resist the full live load by prestress

(d) resist only the dead loads

Ans. (a)

14. For high class brick masonry, which are the proper bricks?

(a) refractory bricks

(b) Jhumb bricks

(d) Modular bricks

Ans. (d)

15. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Equipment) (Used as/with)

A. Clamshell 1. Paving mixer

B. Designation S 2. Aggregate storage bins at baching

and mixing plant

C. Designation E 3. Trasit mixer

D. Centralized production 4. Construction mixer

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (b)

16. The strain on the boom of a hoist is minimum when it is in the

(a) vertical position

(b) horizontal position

(d) 450 inclined position

Ans. (c)

Directions: Each of the following six (6) items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. Your are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

17. Assertion (A): Addition of calcium chloride while preparing concrete proves more effective with slow hardening Portland cement than with rapid hardening cement.

Reason (R): Calcium chloride is an effective accelerator in increasing the rate of relevant reaction.

Ans. (a)

18.Assertion (A): The volume of mortar needed for plastering on both faces of a one-brick wall is more than that for the same area on both faces together of any other thickness of brick, wall.

Reason (R): More water evaporates from the wetted bricks in case of a one-brick wall and also the joints have to be more commonly raked.

Ans. (c)

19. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a cast iron specimen, the failure of the specimen is on a cross section perpendicular to the axis of the specimen.

Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to maximum tensile stress and cast iron is relatively weak in tension.

Ans. (a)

20. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a mild steel specimen, the failure of the specimen is along a plane at 45° to the cross section.

Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to. maximum shear stress and mild steel is relatively weak in shear.

Ans. (a)

21. Assertion (A): Linked bar chart cannot be developed from and AON network as easily as from an AOA network.

Reason (R): AON network do not incorporate information corresponding to dummy arrows o AOA networks.

Ans. (a)

22. Assertion (A): Whereas crashing considers only the negative cost slope aspects, resource allocation may need consideration of the positive cost slope aspects also.

Reason (R): Implement ability is based on manageability and affordability of resource histograms.

Ans. (b)

23. Match List-I with List-II select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-Il

(Equipment) (Category)

A. Derrick Crane 1. Excavating equipment

B. Hoe 2. Hauling equipment

C. Clam shell 3. Hoisting equipment

13. Dumper Truck 4. Lifting equipment

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 4 2 3 1

(d) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (d)

24. Which one of the following techniques is most suitable in case of research and development type of activity?

(a) Critical Path Method

(b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique

(d) Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique

Ans. (b)

25. A tunnel of length of 800 m is to be driven. Part of the total length is through granite and balance is through sandstone. Granite can be tunneled at 10 m per day and sandstone at 20 m per day. Two mutually exclusive site conditions can be

(1) A probability of 0.4 for 600 m granite with 200 m sandstone;

(2) Probability of 0.6 that each is 400 m long. The probabilistic estimate of total tunneling duration is

(a) 75 days

(b) 68 days

(d) 60 days

Ans. (c)

Posted in: Civil engineering , Practice paper , Question and Answers , quiz , test , UPSC IES

civil engg mcq test
Solved multiple choice question of Civil Engineering
Civil Engineering Quiz
Questions and answers related to the Civil Engineering

1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?

(a) Soundness test

(b) Crushing test

(d) Abrasion test

Ans. (a)

2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?

(a) Rotary design

(b) Right-angle intersection

(d) Grade-separated junction

Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?

(a) CBR method

(b) Group index method

(d) McLeod’s method

Ans. (c)

4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?

(a) Loco yard

(b) Marashalling yard

(d) Passenger yard

Ans. (b)

5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?

(a) Stability

(b) Ease of compaction

(d) Bitumen adhesion

Ans. (d)

6. Consider the following statements:

In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with

1. ranging

2. levelling

3. contouring

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?

(a) 365.2840

(b) 366.2422

(d) 365.0000

Ans. (b)

8. Consider the following statements

A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:

1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars

2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1and 2

(d) 1 only

Ans. (b)

9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinates

are parabolic ares?

(a) Average ordinate rule

(b) Middle ordinate rule

(d) Trapezoidal rule

Ans. (c)

10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?

(a) Defective sighting

(b) Defective orientation

(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .

Ans. (b)

11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?

(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil

(b) Deflection factor and traffic index

(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction

Ans. (d)

12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:

1. Liquid limit

2. Sandy loam

3. Plasticity index

4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve

Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1and 2

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?

(a) Origin and destination studies

(b) Parking and accident studies

(d) Axle load studies

Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?

(a) Traffic volume survey

(b) Origin and destination survey

(d) Traffic capacity survey

Ans. (b)

15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?

(a) Endoscope

(b) Periscope

(d) Tachometer

Ans. (c)

16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates

and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?

(a) Surface dressing

(b) Gravel-bitumen mix

(d) Seal coat

Ans. (a)

17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?

(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction

(b) Wheel load

(d) Poisson’s ratio of concrete

Ans. (b)

18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic

wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?

(a) Corner

(b) Corner and interior

(d) Corner, edge and interior

Ans. (d)

19. Consider the following factors:

1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section

2. The change in the slope of the channel

3. The presence of obstruction

4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries

Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)

20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?

(a) Straight river

(b) Meandering river

(d) Deltaic river

Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?

(a) Reservoir for irrigation and power

(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation

(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery

Ans. (b)

22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available

in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?

(a) 9 days

(b) 13 days

(d) 25 days

Ans. (c)

23.. Consider the following statements:

Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls

1. below field capacity

2. to wilting point

3. below wilting point

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed

to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater storage in million cubic metres?

(a) 1.0

(b) 1.5

(d) 2.0

Ans. (b)

25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:

1. Methyl alcohol

2. Cetyl alcohol

3. Stearyl alcohol

4. Kerosene

Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time

of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?

(a) 2.0 m3/s

(b) 3.5 m3/s

(d) 2.5 m3/s

Ans. (a)

27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.

(a) High turbidity — low alkalinity

(b) High turbidity — high alkalinity

(d) Low turbidity — low alkalinity

Ans. (b)

28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and

58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop

respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?

(a) 134%

(b) 76%

(d) 58%

Ans. (b)

29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability

of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?

(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream

(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream

(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream

Ans. (d)

30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:

(a) 0.5m

(b) 1.0 m

(d) 3.0 m

Ans. (c)

31. Consider the following statements:

1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.

2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.

3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.

4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:

(a) the total supply head

(b) half of the total supply head

(d) one-fourth of the total supply head

Ans. (c)

33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:

1. Laminar flown in circular pipes

2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders

3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates

4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both

being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?

(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A

(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A

(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above

Ans. (d)

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

A. Rehbock formula 1. Sutro weir

B. Francis formula 2. Rectangular suppressed weir

C. A special trapezoidal weir 3. Rectangular side- contracted weir

D. Linear proportional weir 4. Cippolletti weir

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Ans. (d)

36. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:

I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.

2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.

3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.

4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or

maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

37. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?

(a) 300 mg/L

(b) 320 mg/L

(d) 400 mg/L

Ans. (b)

38. Consider the following:

1. Force on pipe bends and transitions

2. Jet propulsion

3. Flow velocities in open channel

4. Vortex flow

Which of the above admit employing the moment of momentum equation?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

39. Consider the following statements:

1. Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.

2. Maximum velocity is 3\2 times the average velocity

3. Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.

4. Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.

Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow through a circular pipe?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (b)

40. Consider the following statements:

Cavitation generally results from a combination of several influences

1. by reduction of pressure intensity below a limiting value

2. by increase in either elevation or the velocity of flow

3. by reduction of pressure load in the system

4. by decrease in the velocity of flow

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

41. What is Hydrological Cycle?

(a) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land

(b) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea back again

(d) Processes involved in the transfer of moisture from sea to land and back to sea again

Ans. (d)

42. Consider the following with respect to a double-mass curve:

I. Plot of accumulated rainfall with respect to two chronological orders

2. Plot for estimating multiple missing rainfall data

3. Plot for checking the consistency of the rainfall data

4. Plot of accumulated annual rainfall of a station vs. accumulated rainfall of a group of stations

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (c)

43. Generally to estimate PMP, P_m = 42. 16D0.475 is used (P_m is maximum depth of precipitation, D = duration). What are the units of P_mand D in the equation?

(a) mm, sec

(b) cm, sec

(ë) mm, hr

(d) cm, hr

Ans. (d)

44. A triangular direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm has a time base of 60 hr and a peak flow of 30m3/s occurring at 20 hr

from the start. If the catchment area is 300 km2, what is the rainfall excess in the storm?

(a) 50 mm

(b) 20 mm

(d) 8.3 mm

Ans. (c)

45. A 3 hr unit hydrograph U₁ of a catchment of area 235 km2 is in the form of a triangle with peak discharge 30 m3/s. Another

3 hr unit hydrograph U₂ is also triangular in shape and has the same base width as U₁, but has a peak flow of 90 m3/s. What

is the catchment area of U₂?

(a) 117.5 km2

(b) 235 km2

(d) 705 km2

Ans. (d)

46. While selecting a centrifugal pump for your requirement of head and discharge on the basis of its performance characteristics,

which one of the following criteria is to be adopted?

(a) Head, discharge and efficiency

(b) Head and discharge only

(d) Head only

Ans. (a)

47. Consider the following statements:

The function of the impeller in a centrifugal pump is to:

1. Convert the pressure energy into hydraulic energy

2. Convert the hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

3. Convert the mechanical energy into hydraulic energy

4. transform most of the kinetic energies to pressure energy

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

48. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are

(a) bent forward

(b) bent backward

(d) wave-shaped

Ans. (b)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the the code given below the

Lists-I List-II

A. Spiral casing 1. To allow flow of water through it to produce a torque

for the rotation of the runner

B. Stay ring 2. To direct the water on the runner at an

appropriate angle

C. Guide vane 3. To distribute the flow over the periphery of the runner

D. Runner 4. To act as column helping to support the electrical

generator above the turbine

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 1 2 4 3

(d) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (c)

50. By which one of the following, a small quantity of water may be lifted to a great height?

(a) Hydraulic ram

(b) Hydraulic crane

(d) Hydraulic coupling

Ans. (a)

Posted in: BE , Civil engineering , Practice paper , Question and Answers , quiz , test

A-2-Z GK

Monday, May 16, 2011

UPSC IES Practice Questions Civil Engineering

civil engg mcq test

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