The Metropolitan Institute of Hotel Management Catering Technology

The Metropolitan Institute of Hotel management Catering Technology is one of the popular contributions of Metropolitan Education Trust to our society. This institute was established in the year of 1991 with a mission and vision to give higher education in various fields of hotel management and interior design. The institute is also known to conduct special training programs which are related to the various courses in order to give complete knowledge about the course.

Infrastructure:

This institute provides accommodations facility to its students and also gives better education facility to its students. The institute campus is located 7 kms away from the main city. The campus is spread in an area of 6 acres. The institute provides a Wi-Fi campus which includes hotel houses 25 Suite rooms, Restaurants, Amphitheatres, Conference Halls and recreational facilities like Swimming Pool, Gymnasium, Indoor and Outdoor games etc.

Courses Offered:

The institute offers both undergraduate and postgraduate courses to the applicants. Main courses are Hotel Management BBA, PGDBM, Computers & Information Technology, Conventional, Food Processing, Nursing etc.

Admission Procedure:

For appearing in undergraduate courses, candidates need o secure at least 45% marks in their 10+2 exams and for postgraduate courses they have to have a bachelor’s degree from any of the recognized universities of India. The candidates also have to face an interview conducted in thecampus of the institute.

Placement:

However, the institute is known to provide quality education to its students but it also established a separate training and placement cell in order to establish the career of the students under leading hotels of India.

Contact Details:

Indraprastha, Near Akashwani, Manjari Phata,

Hadapsar, Pune 411 028

Tel.: 020 – 2699 35 88,

Telefax: 020 – 2699 85 86

Email: edo@vsnl.net

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Posted in: collages

PG and Ph.D Admissions In Dhirubai Ambani Instiute (DA-IICT)

Dhirubhai Ambani Institute of Information and Communication Technology (DA-IICT), invites applications from eligible candidates for admission to the following Post graduate (PG) Programs starting July 2010.

Master of Technology (Information and Communication Technology) – M Tech (ICT) .

Eligibility
• Candidates having/appearing for the B Tech / BE degree in ICT and other allied disciplines such as, Computer Science, Electronics & Communication, Electrical Engineering, Electronics & Instrumentation, IT and other allied disciplines OR M Sc degree in Physics, Electronics, Mathematics or Statistics may apply

• Candidates must have 60% marks or equivalent in the qualifying degree as per the norm set by respective Institute or University in the above degree. The candidates appearing for their final year examinations of their qualifying degrees in 2010 may also apply provided they produce a provisional degree certificate or any other proof of the completion of degree certificate before 30 October 2010.

Master of Science (Information Technology) – M Sc (IT)

Eligibility
A graduate with a minimum of 60% marks in their qualifying degree examination may apply. Candidates appearing in their final degree examination and expecting to complete it by July 2010 may also apply subject to the condition that they obtain the 60% cumulative record after finalexamination and submit the provisional degree certificate or any other proof of the completion of degree certificate before 30 October 2010 to the Institute. The students must have at least two courses of Mathematics or Statistics in their undergraduate curriculum and must have completed at least one course on computer science.

M.Sc. (ICT in Agriculture and Rural Development)

Eligibility
A graduate in any of the disciplines mentioned below with a minimum of 15 years (10 + 2 + 3) offormal education and one year of full-time work experience or with a four-year professional degree (without work experience) is eligible to apply: Agriculture & Allied Sciences, Agricultural Engineering, Bio-Sciences and Engineering, Fisheries, Forestry, Management Sciences, Environmental Sciences, Computer Applications, Computer Science/Engineering, Information Science/Technology.
A minimum 60% at the bachelor’s level in the disciplines specified above is required

Master in Design (Communication Design) – M Des

Eligibility for the program
• This is an intensive and innovative program that demands motivated students.

• The program is suitable for students who have a technology background but seek a cultural and artistic orientation to become successful communicators, as well as students who have training in fields other than science and technology but aspire to gain some technological skills to become more creative and effective communicators.

• A candidate should have a Bachelor’s degree from any statutory university or equivalent.

• Applicants from fields of Technology, Science, Humanities, Social Science, Applied Arts, and Performing Arts are eligible for this interdisciplinary program

• Candidates must have minimum of 55% marks or CPI of 6.0/10.0 in the qualifying degreeexamination.

• Individuals who have work experience are also encouraged to apply for the program.

Doctor of Philosophy (PhD)

Eligibility
A. Candidates willing to pursue research in the ICT and related domain must possess a degree in:

M Tech / ME in: Information and Communication Technology related areas such as ICT, CS, IT, CT, EC, ECE, EE, Telecommunications, Instrumentation, Biomedical Engineering and allied disciplines.
Or
B Tech / BE / MSc in: Information and Communication Technology related areas such as ICT, CS, IT, CT, EC, ECE, EE, Telecommunication, Instrumentation, Biomedical Engineering and allied disciplines.
Or
MS /MSc degree of DA-IICT and MCA.
Candidate interested in pursuing PhD in ICT and related areas must have at least 60% marks in the qualifying degree.
B. Candidates with M Phil in the field of Arts, Humanities, Social Sciences, Mathematics, and Sciences and interested in these areas must have an M Phil degree in the desired area with at least 60% marks.:

Candidates with an MSc degree (or MS Degree of DA-IICT), unless they have a subsequent M Phil degree, will be considered equivalent to candidates with a B Tech / BE degree and will need to fulfill additional course and research requirements.

Selection Process
• Admission to M Tech (ICT) program will be based on valid GATE score.
• Selection of candidates for admission to M. Sc. (IT) program will be based on an all-IndiaEntrance Test to be conducted at : Ahmedabad, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, Mumbai, Jaipur, New Delhi, Hyderabad, Lucknow, Bhopal, Kolkata.
• Admission to M. Sc. (ICT in ARD) program will be based on an all-India Entrance Test to be conducted at: Ahmedabad, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot, Mumbai, Jaipur, New Delhi, Hyderabad, Lucknow, Bhopal, Kolkata, followed by an interview at DA-IICT, Gandhinagar
• The Entrance test and interview for M Des program will be conducted only at DA-IICT, Gandhinagar.
• The result of the entrance test(s) for M Sc (IT) and M Sc (ICT in ARD) will be announced at this website by End week of June 2010.

Submission of Application Form
• Applications to the PG programs are preferably to be made online.
• Application form can also be downloaded from the website and sent by post.
• Application fee for online submission is Rs. 1000/- while for submitting the downloaded application by post it is Rs. 1050/-. The application fee is to be paid through a Demand Draft, drawn in favour of “DA-IICT” and payable at Ahmedabad.
• The application form and the demand drafts have to be sent to:

PG Admissions 2010
Dhirubhai Ambani Institute of Information and Communication Technology
Near Indroda Circle
Gandhinagar – 382 007
Gujarat, India
• Candidates are advised to write their name and the program applied for at the reverse of the DD. The institute takes no responsibility for loss of DD in transit.
• For any query, write to pg_admissions[at]daiict.ac.in

Schedule

Filling of online Application Forms: Commences on – 18 March 2010
Filling of online Application Forms: Closes on- 5 May 2010
Last Date for receiving completed Application Form- 5 May 2010
Entrance test for M.Sc. (IT) and M.Sc. (ICT-ARD) – 30 May 2010
Entrance test & Interviews for Ph.D- 21 June 2010
Counselling/Interviews for M. Tech. (ICT) – 22 June 2010
Entrance test & Interviews for M. Des – 23 June 2010
Interview for M.Sc. (ICT-ARD)- 24 June 2010
Commencement of session – 19 July 2010
For more details visit http://www.daiict.ac.in

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Posted in: collages

All India Institute of Medical Sciences DM, M.Ch., MHA, Ph.D, MD, MDS Admissions

All India Institute of Medical Sciences invites applications for the following programmes for the academic session starting 2010

D.M Programmes in following specialties

Cardiology
Endocrinology
Gastroenterology
Neurology
Nephrology
Medical Oncology
Neonatology
Clinical Hematology
Hematopathology
Neuro-Radiology
Neuro-Anaesthesiology
Paediatric Neurology
Clinical Pharmacology

M.Ch. Programmes in following specialties
CTVS
Neuro-Surgery
G.I. Surgery
Paediatric Surgery
Urology

Eligibility
I) Educational qualification
A Candidate must possess a degree in MD/MS or DNB from a University recognized by the MCI in the respective discipline as mentioned hereunder :-

D.M.:
• For D.M. in Cardiology, Endocrinology, Nephrology, Neurology, Medical Oncology and Clinical Heamatology a candidate must possess M.D. in Medicine/Paediatrics of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For DM in Gastraenteroloy, a candidate must possess M.D. in Medicine of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For D.M. in Hematopathology, a candidate must possess M.D. in Pathology of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For D.M. in Neuro-Radiology, a candidate must possess M.D. in Radiodiagnosis of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For D.M. in Neuro-Anaesthesiology, a candidate must prossess M.D. in Anaesthesiology of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For D.M. in Neonatology and Paediatric Neurology, a candidates must possess M.D. in Paediatrics of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.
• For DM in Clinical Pharmacology, a candidate must possess M.D. in Medicine/Pharmacology/ Pediatrics of this Institute or any other University recognized by the MCI.

M.Ch. :
A candidate must possess M.S. degree in Surgery of this Institute or any other University recognised by the MCI.
Note: The candidate who are likely to complete 3 years requisite tenure and degree by 30th July, 2010 may also apply. However, the candidates who complete their 3 years requisite tenure after 30th July, 2010 are not eligible to take up this examination.

II) Age limit :

• 35 years as on 1st July 2010 relaxable in case of SC/ST candidates by a maximum of 5 years and for OBC Candidates 3 years. The upper age limit is not applicable to sponsored candidates. Note : A candidate is allowed to submit application for one speciality/subject only.

METHOD OF SELECTION

Selections for D.M./M.Ch courses are made through a 2-stage performance evaluation :

Stage I: Written test carrying 80 marks of 90 minutes duration in the subject the candidate has applied for. The question paper will consist of 50 Theory based Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and 30 clinical/practical/lab based Short Answer Questions (SAQs)/MCQs. Each correct (MCQ) answer will be awarded 1 mark and each wrong (MCQ) answer will be awarded one-third (-1/3) negative mark. More than one answer will be treated as wrong answer and awarded negative mark. Zero mark will be given for questions not answered.

Stage II: Out of the candidates who secured 50% marks or above in the written test (Stage-I), candidates 3 times the number of seats advertised will be called for departmental clinical/practical/lab based assessment (carrying 20 marks) on the fourth day

M.H .A. (Master in Hospital Administration Programme

ELIGIBILITY

For medical graduates :

(1) The candidate must possess MBBS or an equivalent degree with a minimum experience of three years in a hospital in the relevant field or five years in general practice. A certificate issued by the District Magistrate in support of the general practice claimed should be enclosed with the application.
(2) The candidate should have secured at least 55% marks in aggregate in all MBBS professional examinations.

For non-medical graduates: (1) Non-medical graduate will only be considered for Sponsored seats. (2) A candidates must possess Bachlor’s Degree of a recognised University in Arts or Science or Nursing or Business Administration or Commerce or Engineering or any technical subject with at least 60% marks. (3) A minimum experience of having held a responsible administrative position for a period of not less than seven years is essential.

Ph.D Prgroamme in the following departments :
Anatomy
Biochemistry
Biophysics
Biostatistics
Biotechnology
Cardiac-Biochemistry
C.T.V.S.
Community Medicine
Endocrinology & Metabolism
Gastroenterology & HNU
Hematology
Transplant Immunology & Immunogenetics
Lab. Medicine (Microbiology)
Lab. Medicine (General)
Medical Oncology (IRCH)
Medical Physics (IRCH)
Microbiology
Neuro-Biochemistry
Neuropsycology (N.S. Centre)
Nuclear Medicine
Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
Obst. & Gynecology
Pathology
Paediatrics
Pediatric Surgery
Pharmacology
Physiology
Psychiatry (Clinical Psychology)
Psychiatry (Addiction Psychiatry)
Cardiac Radiology
Radiotherapy
Community Ophthalmology(Dr. R.P.C)
Opthalmology (Dr. R.P. Centre)
Occular Pharmacology (Dr. R.P. Centre)
Reproductive Biology

ELIGIBILITY
A candidate seeking admission to the course of study leading to the award of a Degree of Doctor of Philosophy must possess at least one of the following qualifications of a recognized University/Institutes:

(1) A degree of Master of Sciences or Master’s degree in any subject allied to Bio Medical Sciences or Master’s Degree in Nursing with at least 60% marks or Master of Surgery or Doctor of Medicine or an equivalent degree or Diplomate of the National Board of Examinations.

(2) MBBS degree with a minimum of 55% aggregate marks in the professional examinations

METHOD OF SELECTION
Selection for Ph.D. registration will be made through 2-stage performance evaluation as under:

Stage I : Written test carrying 80 marks of 90 minutes duration in the subject the candidate has applied for. The question paper will consist of 50 Theory based Multiple Choice Questions
(MCQs) and 30 clinical/practical/lab based Short Answer Questions (SAQs)/MCQs. Each correct (MCQ) answer will be awarded 1 mark and each wrong (MCQ) answer will be awarded one-third (-1/3) negative mark. More than one answer will be treated as wrong answer and awarded negative mark. Zero mark will be given for questions not answered.

Stage II : Out of the candidates who secured 50% marks or above in the written test (Stage-I), candidates 3 times the number of seats advertised will be called for departmental clinical/practical/lab based assessment (carrying 20 marks) on the fourth day.

MD/ MS and MDS Programmes
A. CLINICAL SCIENCES
Anaesthesiology
Dermatology & Venereology
Medicine
Nuclear Medicine
Obst. & Gynaecology
Ophthalmology
Orthopaedics
Otorhinolaryngology
Paediatrics
Psychiatry
Radio Diagnosis
Radiotherapy
Surgery
Community Medicine
Phy. Med. & Rehabilitation

B. BASIC CLINICAL SCIENCES
Anatomy
Biochemistry
Biophysics
Forensic Medicine
Lab. Medicine
Microbiology
Pathology
Pharmacology
Physiology

C. MDS
Orthodontics
Prosthodontics
Conservative Dentistry
Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery

ELIGIBILITY
a) A candidate must possess MBBS degree for MD/MS and BDS degree for MDS courses of a University recognised by the Medical Council of India/Dental Council of Indian and must have completed the required period of 12 months compulsory rotating internship/Practical training on or before 30th July, 2010. The candidate who complete their internship after 30th July, 2010 are not eligible to take up this examination.
b) The candidate must have obtained a minimum of 55% marks in aggregate in all the MBBS/BDS professional examinations for other category including OBC category and 50% for candidate belonging to SCs/STs.

CENTRES FOR COMPETITIVE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
The Examination will be conducted at four metropolitan cities Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai

Candidate should indicate his/her choice of centre in the application form. The centre of Examination once alloted will not be changed and any request for such a change will not be entertained. The candidate should indicate his/her choice of centre with utmost care. In case of any discrepancy in the exercise of choice of centre or non availability of centre in the city opted as 1st choice in Col. 5 of application, the centre allotted by AIIMS (i.e. Delhi) will be considered as final.

M.Ch. (6 years course)
ELIGIBILITY
The candidate must possess MBBS degree and have completed the required period of one year compulsory Internship. He/She must have obtained at least 55% marks in aggregate in all the MBBS professional examinations. The eligibility criteria are same as specified for MD/MS (3 years) courses.

REQUIREMENTS FOR ADMISSION OF FOREIGN NATIONALS
a) Foreign nationals are required to fill in the prescribed online application form indicating the choice of
subject (only one subject) for admission to Postgraduate courses leading to award of
MD/MS/DM/M.Ch./Ph.D. degree.
b) The foreign nationals are required to send their Registration Slip of on line applications through Diplomatic Channel. They are also required to appear in the Competitive Entrance Examination along with other candidates. However, an ‘Advance Copy’ to be submitted at AIIMS before 10.04.2010.
c) The foreign nationals will be considered against the seats advertised under the “Sponsored” category for MD/MS/DM/M.Ch. degree.
d) Seats are not reserved in any discipline for foreign nationals (except the bilateral agreement between the Government of India and any other nation).
e) Nominations/No objection for the candidate should reach the Examination Section before the date of issue of the Admit Card as specified under “AT A GLANCE” In case of non-receipt of the nominations/clearance/no objection from the concerned Ministry by due date, their candidature will not be considered.
f ) No emoluments will be paid by AIIMS to the Foreign National candidates.

How to Apply?
: Acandidate can submit application On-Line through Internet. Visit www.aiimsexams.org Read the prospectus and other details carefully and follow the instructions given therein. The candidate can pay the application fee through a credit card/debit card or through challan of State Bank of India or through Demand Draft of any bank (Transaction Processing Fee Applicable)

STATUS OF APPLICATION FORM RECEIVED
Registration numbers of all the Registration Slips received will be available on AIIMS web site www.aiims.ac.in and www.aiims.edu as well as www.aiimsexams.org after 25.04.2010. Candidates are advised to check position regarding receipt of their Registration Slip on the web site. If a candidate’s Registration number is not available on the web site, he/she should immediately write to the Asstt. Controller of Examinations, A.I.I.M.S., New Delhi-110608 along with full particulars and proof of delivery of the Registration Slip in AIIMS.

IMPORTANT DATES
1. Applying Online Application on www.aiimsexams.org – 12.03.2010 to 05.04.2010
2. Last Date for applying On-line Application 05.04.2010
3. Registration slip, complete in all respects, must reach AIIMS, New Delhi latest by 5.00 P.M. on 10th April, 2010.
4. DATE FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS :
(i) MD/MS/M.Ch. (6 years)/MDS – 9th May, 2010 in Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai;
(ii) DM/M.Ch./MHA- 16th May, 2010 in Delhi only;
(iii) Ph.D. -4th July, 2010 in Delhi only

For enquiries relating to Entrance Examination please contact :

Assistant Controller (Exams) Examination Section All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Ansari Nagar, New Delhi – 1100 608

Tel : 26589900, 26588500, 26588700 Extn. 4499, 6421, 6422, 4971
Fax : 011 2658 8789

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Posted in: collages

Delhi Police Constable Driver Exam Solved Model Paper, 2009

(Held on 20-8-2009)

1. See Q. 1 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) One way road
(B) No overtaking
(C) No entry
(D) No entry for heavy vehicles
Ans : (B)

2. A number is greater than 7 but less than 19. It is also greater than 17 but less than 33. The number is—
(A) 19
(B) 18
(C) 31
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. In a ‘Left Hand Drive’ vehicle, the steering wheel is located on the—
(A) Left hand side
(B) In the centre
(C) Right hand side
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. While driving in the city at night, the headlight should normally be kept—
(A) Switched off
(B) At low beam
(C) At high beam
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In a round-about, who has the right of way ?
(A) The traffic to your right
(B) The traffic to your left
(C) The faster moving vehicle
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

6. If there are 3 lanes in a carriageway, the overtaking lane is usually on the—
(A) On the left side
(B) In the middle
(C) On the right side
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

7. Before leaving a parked vehicle, you should—
(A) Turn the ignition key off
(B) Stop the engine, lock the ignition, remove the key, and set the hand brake
(C) Stop the engine and lock the car
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

8. Double solid lines in the middle of the road indicate—
(A) You may cross over while overtaking
(B) You may not cross over the lines unless there is an obstruction
(C) No overtaking
(D) One way traffic only
Ans : (C)

9. Flashing yellow light means—
(A) Slow down and proceed with caution
(B) Stop, if possible to do so safely
(C) Continue at the same speed
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

10. To top up the battery—
(A) Acid is to be filled
(B) Distilled water is to be filled
(C) Mixture of both
(D) Mixture of distilled water and coolant is to be filled
Ans : (B)

11. See Q. 11 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) No entry
(B) No overtaking
(C) One way entry only
(D) No waiting
Ans : (A)

12. The braking action has reduced after washing the vehicle, what can be done ?
(A) Have the brakes adjusted at a workshop
(B) The vehicle is unserviceable and must be withdrawn from the traffic at once
(C) Normal braking action can be restored by operating the brakes several times at a slow driving speed
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

13. Ravi buys a bicycle for Rs. 1200 and later sells it to Ganesh at a loss of Rs. 200. Ganesh then sells it to Irfan for a loss of 10%. How much did Irfan pay for the bicycle ?
(A) Rs. 1100
(B) Rs. 950
(C) Rs. 1000
(D) Rs. 900
Ans : (D)

14. Petrol engine : Spark plug : : Diesel engine—
(A) Piston rings
(B) Crankshaft
(C) Heater plug
(D) Distributor
Ans : (B)

15. A bus leaves for Bhopal from Delhi every 40 minutes. The last bus for Bhopal left 15 minutes back and right now it is 11•25 A.M. At what time will the next bus for Bhopal leave ?
(A) 11.50 A.M.
(B) 12•05 P.M.
(C) 11•40 A.M.
(D) 11•45 P.M.
Ans : (A)

16. The distance between Delhi and Lucknow is 520 km. A train has covered 70 km in the first hour. What will the total time taken for the journey if the train goes at a speed of 90 km per hour for the remaining distance ?
(A) 5 hrs.
(B) 7 hrs.
(C) 5 hrs. 30 min.
(D) 6 hrs.
Ans : (D)

17. Mandatory traffic signs are in a—
(A) Triangle
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Can be of any shape
Ans : (D)

18. The choke can be used if the engine is—
(A) Hot
(B) Cold
(C) Giving smoke
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

19. See Q. 19 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Narrow bridge ahead
(B) One way road ahead
(C) End of dual carriageway
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. In cold climate, kerosene can be mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Diesel
(C) CNG
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

21. Every time engine oil is changed ……… must also be changed.
(A) Transmission oil
(B) Coolant
(C) Brake oil
(D) Oil filter
Ans : (D)

22. Informatory signs are usually ……… in shape.
(A) Circle
(B) Triangle
(C) Rectangle
(D) No particular shape
Ans : (C)

23. 10% of the potatoes bought by a trader turned out to be rotten. He sold the rest of them for a profit of 20%. What per cent profit did he make on the whole deal ?
(A) 10%
(B) 12%
(C) 8%
(D) 6%
Ans : (C)

24. Ustad Zakir Hussain is associated with the—
(A) Sarod
(B) Sitar
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (C)

25. See Q. 25 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) No entry
(B) No entry for heavy vehicles
(C) No parking
(D) End of restriction
Ans : (D)

26. Amartya Sen is a famous Indian—
(A) Musician
(B) Businessman
(C) Economist
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Overtaking from left side of another vehicle is permitted—
(A) Always
(B) Only when the driver ahead of you gives a signal
(C) Only when the vehicle ahead is going to take right turn and if there is no obstruction on left
(D) Only if you are in the left lane
Ans : (C)

28. See Q. 28 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Bridge ahead
(B) Narrow road ahead
(C) One way road
(D) Road damaged
Ans : (B)

29. The carburettor is found in—
(A) Diesel engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Both types of engines
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

30. Emperor Ashok was shocked by the pain and suffering he saw in the—
(A) Battle of Plassey
(B) Magadha wars
(C) Battle of Lumbini
(D) Kalinga war
Ans : (D)

31. The vacuum booster in a vehicle is used to assist the—
(A) Power
(B) Braking
(C) Fuel consumption
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

32. See Q. 32 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Parking permitted for 50 minutes only
(B) Speed limit 50 km per hour
(C) Parking space for 50 vehicles only
(D) Road ends 50 m ahead
Ans : (B)

33. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is for—
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 4 years
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

34. The central office of the Reserve Bank of India is in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

35. Complete the series :
23, 40, 57, ……
(A) 74
(B) 80
(C) 77
(D) 93
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Find the odd one out :

36. (A) Cow
(B) Goat
(C) Camel
(D) Dog
Ans : (D)

37. (A) Petrol
(B) Wood
(C) Diesel
(D) CNG
Ans : (B)

38. (A) Sun
(B) Moon
(C) Rainbow
(D) Stars
Ans : (C)

39. (A) Apple
(B) Potato
(C) Tomato
(D) Grapes
Ans : (B)

40. When starting a car, the accelerator should—
(A) Be kept pressed down fully
(B) Be pumped rapidly
(C) Normally not be pressed at all
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

41. See Q. 41 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Entry only for vehicles upto 3•5 m high
(B) No entry for vehicles over 3•5 tonnes
(C) No parking for tall vehicles
(D) No parking for heavy vehicles
Ans : (A)

42. Talking on the mobile phone while driving—
(A) Is permitted if a hands-free kit is used
(B) Is prohibited
(C) Is permitted if you are driving within the speed limit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

43. A driving license issued in Rajasthan is valid—
(A) Only in Rajasthan
(B) In Rajasthan and adjoining states
(C) All over India
(D) In all states of North India
Ans : (C)

44. Our body is made up predominantly of—
(A) Iron
(B) Muscle
(C) Bone
(D) Water
Ans : (D)

45. Which of these is not an ecofriendly power source ?
(A) Solar power
(B) Wind power
(C) Coal
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

46. Who has the right of way in the hills ?
(A) The vehicle going uphill
(B) The vehicle going downhill
(C) The heavier vehicle
(D) Depends on the situation
Ans : (A)

47. Which types of brakes are found in modern vehicles ?
(A) Drum brakes
(B) Disc brakes
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

48. Engine oil should be checked—
(A) When the engine is cold and vehicle is level
(B) When the engine is warm
(C) While the engine is running
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

49. Saina Nehwal is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C) Swimming
(D) Chess
Ans : (B)

50. The Delhi Police Act came into effect in the year—
(A) 1861
(B) 1951
(C) 1978
(D) 1975
Ans : (C)

51. Using a pressure horn—
(A) Helps to clear the road
(B) Should be avoided at night
(C) Is illegal
(D) Is allowed only for VIP vehicles
Ans : (C)

52. India is a member of—
(A) NATO
(B) SAARC
(C) UN Security Council
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

53. See Q. 53 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) Hospital ahead
(B) End of speed restriction
(C) No traffic permitted
(D) No parking or standing
Ans : (D)

54. …… is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Attorney General
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

55. A car runs 2480 km on 310 litres of petrol during the first 15 days of the month. During the next 15 days, it travels 2560 km on 320 litres of petrol. What is the distance travelled per litre dur-ing the entire month ?
(A) 9 km
(B) 7•6 km
(C) 8•4 km
(D) 8 km
Ans : (D)

56. Abhinav Bindra won the Olympic gold medal in—
(A) Boxing
(B) Chess
(C) Wrestling
(D) Shooting
Ans : (D)

57. The port of Vishakhapatnam is on the coast of—
(A) The Bay of Bengal
(B) The Arabian Sea
(C) The Gulf of Khambat
(D) The Palk Straits
Ans : (A)

58. ……… is famous for its marble.
(A) Ranchi
(B) Makrana
(C) Bokaro
(D) Madurai
Ans : (B)

59. The oldest football tournament in India is the—
(A) Santosh Trophy
(B) Ranji Trophy
(C) Durand Cup
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

60. See Q. 60 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) No parking on either side
(B) Parking permitted on both sides
(C) Parking permitted only at night
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

61. The ……… links Jammu to the Kashmir valley.
(A) Rohtang Pass
(B) Baralacha Tunnel
(C) Jawahar Tunnel
(D) Sela Pass
Ans : (C)

62. The Amarnath cave is situated in—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Tibet
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (A)

63. Registration numbers of private cars are written in—
(A) Black letters on white background
(B) White letters on black background
(C) Black letters on yellow background
(D) Yellow letters on black background
Ans : (A)

64. The minimum age for applying for a learner’s license is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 16 years
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

65. A person who has consumed alcoholic drinks can drive if—
(A) He thinks he can control the car
(B) His house is closeby
(C) He is an expert driver
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

66. A water tank has a capacity of 400 litres. It gets half-filled by putting 10 buckets of water in it. What is the capacity of the bucket ?
(A) 10 litres
(B) 15 litres
(C) 40 litres
(D) 20 litres
Ans : (D)

67. Keeping one foot on the clutch—
(A) Helps in relaxing the leg
(B) Helps in changing gears
(C) Is a bad habit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

68. See Q. 68 figure
The sign above indicates—
(A) No parking
(B) End of speed restriction
(C) No entry
(D) End of road
Ans : (A)

69. Where is the famous Sun Temple located ?
(A) Madurai
(B) Mathura
(C) Konark
(D) Calicut
Ans : (C)

70. See Q. 70 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) First aid post ahead
(B) Medical check required
(C) Check your first aid kit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

71. A flashing red light means—
(A) Stop, and wait for the light to turn green
(B) Stop, and proceed when it is safe to do so
(C) Slow down the check for oncoming traffic and proceed when it is safe
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

72. It is illegal to park—
(A) On a footpath
(B) On a bridge or inside a tunnel
(C) In a bicycle lane
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

73. Your vehicle is involved in an accident hurting people, you should—
(A) Report to the nearest police station, and take the persons to the hospital
(B) First take the injured people to the hospital and then report to the police station
(C) Need not report to the police station but should take the persons to the hospital
(D) Inform PCR on 100 and continue your journey
Ans : (B)

74. Which lane must you be in, while making a right turn ?
(A) Any lane
(B) Extreme left lane
(C) Extreme right lane
(D) Middle lane
Ans : (C)

75. While driving on a wet or slippery road—
(A) Tyre pressure must be reduced
(B) Sudden braking or acceleration must be avoided
(C) Vehicle should be driven at a high speed
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

76. To drive a vehicle with expired insurance, one—
(A) Shall drive cautiously to avoid any accident and subsequent loss to the third party
(B) Shall not drive in any case
(C) May drive if insurance policy covering the driver’s personal insurance is valid
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

77. With which country did India sign a nuclear accord in 2008 ?
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) Pakistan
(D) Germany
Ans : (B)

78. Who built the Red Fort ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jehangir
(D) Shah Jahan
Ans : (D)

79. See Q. 79 figureThe sign above indicates—
(A) Playground ahead
(B) People may be crossing the road ahead
(C) School ahead
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

80. Who is the President of Pakistan ?
(A) General Kayani
(B) Pervez Musharraf
(C) Yusuf Gilani
(D) A. A. Zardari
Ans : (D)

81. The latest differences between the Ambani brothers are over—
(A) Natural gas
(B) Cotton textiles
(C) Mobile phones
(D) Petrol pumps
Ans : (A)

82. H1N1 (Swine Flu) spreads through—
(A) Unhygeinic food like pork
(B) Contaminated blood of infected person
(C) Contact with infected person
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

83. The Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for its—
(A) Rhinocerous
(B) White Tigers
(C) Ghariyal
(D) Great Indian Bustard
Ans : (A)

84. The electric current in our households is—
(A) 220 volt AC
(B) 220 volt DC
(C) 440 volt AC
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

85. Itanagar is the capital of—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Tripura
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Meghalaya
Ans : (C)

86. Car : Petrol : : Torch : —
(A) Plastic
(B) Cell
(C) Bulb
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

87. Neighbourhood : House : : … : Student.
(A) Class
(B) Books
(C) Uniform
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

88. …… : Deer : : Cow : Grass.
(A) Leaves
(B) Lion
(C) Jungle
(D) Zoo
Ans : (B)

89. Shared Needle :……… : : Mosquito Bite : Malaria.
(A) Pain
(B) Injection
(C) HIV-AIDS
(D) Cancer
Ans : (C)

90. Cassette Tape : Audio CD :: …… : Digital Picture.
(A) Photo film
(B) Camera
(C) Computer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

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Inspector Grade II Sample exam Solved Model Paper for Food and Civil Supplies Punjab

NUMERICAL ABILITY

Inspector Grade II Sample exam Solved Model Paper for Food and Civil Supplies Punjab

1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to

a. 11

b. 14

c. 20

d. 21

Answer-d

2. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is

a. -1

b. 0

c. 1

d. 2

Answer -b

3. 0.333 …. × 0.444 …. is equal to

a. 0.148148148 ….

b. 0.777 ….

c. 0.121212 ….

d. 1.333 ….

Answer-a

5. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get

a. 96

b. 104

c. 108

d. 109

Answer-d

6. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27

a. 54

b. 64

c. 81

d. 91

Answer-d

7. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -

a. 125m

b. 135 m

c. 159 m

d. 175 m

Answer-c

8.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?

a. 7 min & 15 sec

b. 7 min & 45 sec

c. 8 min & 5 sec

d. 8 min & 15 sec

Answer-d

9. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?

a. 7:5

b. 1:2

c. 2:1

d. 6:5

Answer-a

10.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?

a. 45 km/hr

b. 50 km/hr

c. 55 km/hr

d. 65 km/hr

Answer-c

11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was

a. 450 km

b. 675 km

c. 337.5 km

d. 1350 km

Answer-b

12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A’s share, 4 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share are all equal. The share of C is

a. Rs. 84

b. Rs. 147

c. Rs. 196

d. Rs. 240

Answer-a

13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is

a. Rs. 3500

b. Rs. 3000

c. Rs. 2500

d. Rs. 4000

Answer-c

14.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is

a. Rs. 1700

b. Rs. 1800

c. Rs. 2000

d. Rs. 2200

Answer-c

15.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in

a. 48 days

b. 60 days

c. 75 days

d. 90 days

Answer-d

16.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is

a. 1848 cm3

b. 1232 cm3

c. 1078 cm3

d. 980 cm3

Answer-c

17.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is

a. 30 cm

b. 60 cm

c. 72 cm

d. 108 cm

Answer-b

18.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-

a. 125 sq. cm

b. 112.5 sq. cm

c. 110 sq. cm

d. 100?2 sq. m

Answer-b

19.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -

a. 10 cm

b. 24 cm

c. 26 cm

d. 27.5 cm

Answer-b

20.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same asa. 4 : 1

b. 2 :1

c. 7 : 5

d. 7 :10

Answer-a

21. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is
a. ?? : ?6

b. ?? : ?6

c. ?? : ?3

d. ?6 : ??

Answer-d

22.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table?
a. Rs. 2400

b. Rs. 2160

c. Rs. 2100

d. Rs. 2052

Answer-d

23. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is

a. 10%

b. 12%

c. 15%

d. 16? %

Answer-c

24.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Answer-b

25.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?

a. Rs. 1,20,000

b. Rs. 1,92,000

c. Rs. 1,24,000

d. Rs. 96,000

Answer-b

26. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 12½%

d. 25%

Answer-d

27. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was

a. 30 dozen

b. 40 dozen

c. 50 dozen

d. 60 dozen

Answer-d

28.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is

a. Rs. 370

b. Rs. 385

c. Rs. 390

d. Rs. 400

Answer-c

29.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to

a. Rs. 950

b. Rs. 980

c. Rs. 1010

d. Rs. 1040

Answer-d

30.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is

a. 24

b. 36

c. 17

d. 72

Answer-d

31.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -

a. 15

b. 12

c. 10

d. 20

Answer-a

32.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee’s expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?

a. Rs. 300

b. Rs. 350

c. Rs. 375

d. Rs. 475

Answer-d

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