2010 Canara Bank PO reasoning Paper Sample test paper Question Bank

Canara Bank PO reasoning Paper Sample test paper Question Bank
2010 Canara bank PO Model test paper reasoning MCQ objective Questions

This MCQ model test paper Contains Questions on verbal Reasoning Only

This test paper is also useful for
Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank Exam
SBI PO Test
BOB PO test
And all types of PO test For bank jobs

2010 Canara bank PO Model test paper reasoning MCQ objective Questions

This MCQ model test paper Contains Questions on verbal Reasoning Only

This test paper is also useful for
Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank Exam
SBI PO Test
BOB PO test
And all types of PO test For bank jobs
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code?
(A)%653
(B) %@63
(C), %5@3
(D) %@53
(E) None of these
3. How m meaningful English words Scan be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word?
(A)None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. if ‘R’ denotes ‘—‘, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes
‘ +‘, then
42 ‘W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 =?
(A) -22
(B) —168
(C) 22
(D) 28
(E) None of these
5, In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is
SOULFUL written in that code?
(A) VPTKKTE
(B) VPTKETK
(C) TPVKKTE
(D) TNRKMVG
(F) None of these
6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 95 metre
(B)50 metre
(C)70 metre
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
8. What should come next in the following letter series
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B
C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
(A)R
(B)T
(C)A
(D)B
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?
(A) ja
(B) na
(C) pa
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA, IKG, OQM,?
(A)STW
(B) WUS
(C)SWU
(D) UWS
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11—15)Four statements are given  followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from statements disregarding known facts.
11. Statements:
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions:
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
III. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and IV follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements:
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only I ,II and Ill follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements:
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites
(A) Only I and III follow
(B)Only I, II and III follow
(C)Only III and IV follow
(D)Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these

14. Statements:
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings
III. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(ID) Only either I or III follows
(E) Only either I or III and II follow
15. Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.

(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only IV follows
Directions—(Q. 16—20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of C.
16. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

17. Who is third to the right of K?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

18. What is F’s position with respect to B?
(A)Second to the left
(B)Third to the right
(C)Fourth to the right
(D)Third to the left
(E)Fifth to the right
19. Who is fourth to the left of C?
(A)C
(B)A
(C)D
(D)K
(E) Data inadequate
20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?
(A)GFB
(B) BGH
(C)ADC
(D) KEC
(E)EGF

Directions_.(Q. 21—25) In the following questions, the symbols 0, C), ©, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q,
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q,
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/ are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
21. Statements;
D? T ,T@R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions:

I R@D
II R%D
III K*T
IV. M?T

(A) Only either I or II is true
(B) Only III and IV are true
(C) Only either I or II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and IV are true
(E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true

22. Statements
J @ F, F? N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions:
I G*N
II. N©J
III F*J
IV. J?G

(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I ,II and III are true
(C) Only II, III and IV are true
(D) All I, II, III and IV are true
(E) None of these

Conclusions
L R*D
H. V*R
I D@M
IV. M%D
23. Statements:
R * K, K % D, D @ V,V ? M
Conclusions
I R*D
II. V*R
III D@M
IV. M%D
(A) None is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only IV is true
(D) Only either III or IV is true
(E) Only either III or IV and II are true

24. Statements
B © T, T * R, R % F, F @K

Conclusions
I B%R
II F*T
III R%K
IV. K*T

(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only IV is true

25.Statements:
F % N, N © W, W ?Y, Y * T
Conclusions:
I. F%W
IL T%N
III N%Y
IV. T%W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only I and IV are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26—30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.

II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence gene ration of electricity needs to be augmented.

III No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.

(A) None is strong

(B) Only I is strong

(C) Only II is strong

(D) Only III is strong

(E) Only either I or II is strong

27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?

Arguments:

I. No, this way the work will never get completed.

II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.

III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.

(A) None is strong

(B) Only I is strong

(C) Only III is strong

(D) Only II and HI are strong

(E) Only I and II are strong

28. Statement: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India?

Arguments:

I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.

II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.

III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.

(A) Only l and  II are strong

(B) Only II and III are strong

(C)Only I and III are strong

(D) All I II and III are strong

(E) None of these

29. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?

Arguments:

I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.

II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.

III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.

(A) Only I and II are strong

(B)Only II  and III are strong

(C) Only I and III are strong

(D) All I,II and III are strong

(E) None of these

30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?

Arguments:

I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.

II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction  of high rise buildings.

III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.

(A) Only II is strong

(B) Only III is strong

(C) Only I and III are strong

(D) Only I is strong

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 31—35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.

II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.

III. The Govt’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private

(A) Only I and II are implicit

(B) Only II and III are implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only I and  III are implicit

(E) None of these

32. Statement :

Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.

II. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.

III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.

(A) Only I is implicit

(B) Only II is implicit

(C) Only I and II are implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) None of these

33 Statement :

The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.

II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.

III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only I and II are implicit

34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.

II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.

III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.

(A)None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only II and III  are implicit

35. Statement :The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as the fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?

I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.

II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.

III Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. -

(A) None is implicit

(B) Only I is implicit

(C) Only II is implicit

(D) Only III is implicit

(E) Only I and III are implicit

Directions—.(Q. 36—40) Below is given a passage followed  by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers

(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.

(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.

(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable I It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals lead to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.

36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.

37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors.

38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.

39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.

40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow up of credit given by banks.

Directions—(Q. 41—45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank

The Candidate Must :

(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.

(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.

(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree diploma in

Management/Economics / Statistics.

(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.

(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank.

(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.

(vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except

(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or JCWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.

(b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.

In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers :

(A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.

(B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.

(C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.

(D) If the candidate is to be selected

(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.

41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.

42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68  per cent marks in HSC and 58

per cent marks in B.Com.  She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.

43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.

44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview.

45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.

Answers:

1	E
2	D
3	C
4	C
5	A
6	C
7	B
8	A
9	B
10	D
11	B
12	E
13	C
14	E
15	A
16	B
17	C
18	D
19	A
20	E
21	E
22	E
23	D
24	D
25	B
26	C
27	D
28	B
29	B
30	C
31	B
32	C
33	C
34	C
35	E
36	C
37	B
38	A
39	A
40	D
41	A
42	D
43	E
44	B
45	C

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MCQ Model papers PO Jobs 2010 Central bank of India Practice Test Paper English

MCQ Model papers PO Jobs 2010 Central bank of India  Practice  Test Paper English
MALWA GRAMIN BANK CLERK EXAM., 2010

English Language
(Held on 31-1-2010)
Directions—(Q. 1—15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well treated. There was also a Dog who lived near the Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.

One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and some how managed to sneak into the Elephants shed. He ate the grains of sweet rice that fell from the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge Elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food. Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food. Finally the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.

The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together. While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other,

Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this Dog. What price do you want for it ?“ The Elephant-keeper didn’t own the Dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the Dog to his home village, which was quite far away. The King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.

Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t mention anything about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was known for his keen understanding of animals. The King ordered the minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find out the reason for the Elephant’s condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant shed and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the Elephant-keeper, “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then why does he look so sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this Elephant shared a close friendship with anyone?

The Elephant-keeper said, ‘There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the King and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome without his dear friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?“
The Minister replied, “Elephant- keeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How can we bring back my Elephant’s friend and make him happy again ?“ The Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal Elephant’s shed will be penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.

As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The Dog wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the Minister for his wise judgment.

1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and as in pain
(E) None of these

2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he could be lured back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephant- keeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these

3. Why had the Elephant become very sad?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend The Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these

4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister
(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship

6. Why was the Elephant taken care of?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these

7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these

8. What did the Dog do once he was set free?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place faraway
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these

9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephant- keeper?
1.He was greedy
2.He was insensitive
3.He was brave
(A)Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)

10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King?
(1) He was compassionate
(2) He was deceitful
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All the three (1), (2) and (3)

Directions—(Q. 11—13) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. EXTRACTED
(A) Pulled
(B) Inserted
(C) Wing
(D) Dug out
(E) Received

12. DECLARATION
(A) Pact
(B) Praise
(C) Announcement
(D) Writ
(E) Resolve
13. KEEN
(A) Shallow
(B) Urgent
(C) Concentrated
(D) Deep
(E) Eager
Directions—(O. 14 and 15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. RESIST
(A) Give in
(B) Please

(C) Struggle
(D) Tryout

(E) Defy
15. SEPARATED
(A) Stuck
(B) United
(C) Estranged
(D) Bound
(E) Joined
Directions—(Q. 16—20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (0) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required”, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s ending.

(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends
(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required

17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was hardly pressed for time.
(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required

19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his boss—
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams starting the next day—
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21—25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bracket is given. These are numbered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bracket may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bracket are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. People went (crazy/A) when the musician along with his (friend/B), took to the (staging/C) and belted out (popular/D) tracks. (All correct/E)
22 For a growing number of (coupals/A), adoption is not a helpless (compulsion/B) but also (deliberate/C), and often (noble/D), choice. (All correct/E)
23. On two (consecutive/A) nights the two greatest (icons/B) of show business were honoured with (unprecedented/C) (affection/D). (All correct/E)
24. We are so busy looking at (mediocrity/A) that when truly outstanding (achievement/B) stares us in the face we (resort/C) to the same terms of (praise/D). (All correct/E)
25. The unlikely (migration/A) was (officially/B) explained as a move to meet (expanding/C) business (opportunities/D). (All correct/E)

Directions—(Q. 26—30) Rear range the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for repair.
(3)The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an apprentice in a bicycle shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary work.
26. Which of the following should bethe SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(A)1
(B)2
(C)3
(D) 4
(E)6
27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A)1
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
(E)5
28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rear rangement?
(A)1
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
(E)5
29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(A)1
(B)2
(C)4
(D)5
(E)6
30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rear rangement?
(A)2
(B)3
(C)4
(D)5
(E)6

Directions—(Q. 31—40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. In about five minutes, they would/(A)
cover the distance from the road to the point/(B)
where the waves would /(C)
begin lick their feet./ (D)
No error/(E)

32. The devastating experiences / (A)
Of many wars taught some countries/(B)
The necessary of pursuing peace /(C)
at the expense of nationalist egos./ (D)
No error/(E)

33. The former superstar recently /(A)
visit an orphanage, /(B)
fuelling speculation that /(C)
she is planning to adopt a child. / (D)
No error/(E)

34. Accordance to a new study /(A)
taking steps to remain healthy and young/(B)
may help delay /(C)
the onset of Alzheimer’s disease./(D)
No error/(E)

35. A day after he was diagnosed with /(A)
swine flu, preventive measures were put in place/(B)
to ensure that others were not /(C)
affected by the dreaded virus./(D)
No error/(E)

36. The administration has conclusive /(A)
that it is retailers who are /(B)
responsible for upsetting /(C)
the city’s household budget./(D)
No error/(E)

37. The assurances, unfortunately, /(A)
remained on paper, as / (B)
neither the Centre or the state initiated steps / (C)
for the development of the backward region. /(D)
No error/(E)

38. Sediment deposit along the coast/(A)
may be the primary reason for / (B)
the change in conditions, / (C)
but a lot more remains to be under stand/(D)
No error/(E)

39. A committee will be set up / (A)
To explore pros and cons by / (B)
A common fee structure, and will /(C)
take a final decision on it within a week. /(D)
No error/(E)

No error
(E)
40. The infection which causes /(A)
gums to bleed and teeth to fall out /(B)
results from the build-up of/(C)
a particular bacteria that is common to most mouths. /(D)
No error/(E)
Directions—(Q. 41—50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but she would have to be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to find one, but nowhere could he get what he wanted. One evening during a terrible storm; there was thunder and lightning, and the rain poured down in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was …(42)… at the palace door, and the old king went to open it. It was a princess standing out there. But, good gracious !What a sight the rain and the wind had made her look.
The water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess. Well, we’ll soon …(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing, went into the bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead, and …(44)… a pea on the bottom; then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the pea, and then twenty quilts on ..(45)… of the mattresses.

On this the princess had to lie all night. In the …(46)… she was asked how she had slept. “Oh, very badly said she. “I scarcely closed my eyes all night. Heaven only knows what was in the bed. But I was lying on something hard, as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body. It’s horrible I” Now they knew that she was a real princess because she had …(48)… the pea right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts. Nobody but a real princess could be as …(49)… as that.So the prince took her for his wife, for now he…(50)… that he had a real princess.
41.
(A)called
(B) tour
(C)sent
(D) saw
(E)traveled
42.
(A)made
(B) felt
(C)heard
(D) seen

(E)sounded

43.
(A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
44.
(A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E)stitch

45.
(A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D)between
(E)middle

46.
(A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D)fields
(E)dark

47.
(A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time

48.
(A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D)carried
(E)found

49.
(A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D)sensitive
(E)pretty

50.
(A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D)think
(E)knew

Answers:

1	B
2	A
3	C
4	A
5	E
6	E
7	D
8	D
9	C
10	A
11	E
12	C
13	D
14	A
15	B
16	A
17	E
18	B
19	C
20	D
21	C
22	A
23	B
24	E
25	D
26	B
27	D
28	E
29	A
30	E
31	D
32	E
33	B
34	A
35	B
36	A
37	C
38	D
39	E
40	D
41	E
42	C
43	B
44	C
45	A
46	A
47	D
48	B
49	D
50	E

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