pgt biology and Botany

pgt biology

pgt biology
get prepared for Techers jobs exams PGT Biology
Free Online Practice paper for Pgt Biology Jobs
Free Biology Questions

Botany

1. Morphogenesis in plants is controlled by

(1) Auxins

(2) Gibberellins

(3) Cytokinins

(4) Abscisic acid

Ans. (4)

2. The non-auxin herbicide which is used to kill broad leaved plants in grass lawns is:

(a) Diquat

(b) Dinitrophenol

(c) Dalapon

(d) Dicamba

Ans. (c)

3. In tissue culture:

(a) Normal cells behave as cancer cell.

(b) Normal cells behave as normal cells

(C) Cancer cells behave as normal cells

(d) Cancer cells form callus

Ans. (a)

4. The plants of Cladophora crispata occur as:

(a) Epiphyte

(b) Endophyte

(c) Endozoic

(d) Epizoic

Ans. (d)

5. Which one of the following ratio is constant DNA of a species?

(a) A+T/G+C

(b) A+G/T+C

(c) A+C/T+G

(d) A+U/T+G

Ans. (a)

6. Mycorrhiza is:

(a) Association of root and bacteria

(b) Association of root and fungi

(c) Association of root and algae

(d) Parasitic root

Ans. (b)

Direction: In the following questions more than one of the answers given may be correct. Select the correct answers and mark it according to the code.

Codes:

(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(2) 1 and 2 are correct

(3) 2 and 4 are correct ‘

(4) 1 and 3 are correct

7. Pollen tube of Cycas acts

(1) As an agent for carrying male. Gamete to the egg

(2) As a haustorium

(3) As endosperm

(4) As female cone

Ans. (2)

8. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the growth of the moulds, Mucor or Penicillium?

(1) Warmth

(2) Carbohydrate

(3) Water

(4) Light

Ans. (1)

9. Which of the following characteristics are associated with halophytes plants?

(1) Presence of pneumatophores

(2) Leaves and stem have hairy and waxy covering

(3) Shows viviparous germination

(4) Leaves show Heterophilly

Ans. (4)

10. The characteristic feature of leghaemoglobin are

(1) It is a source of energy

(2) It is a pinkish colour pigment found in nodules

(3) Activated by the presence of Mg²⁺ ions

(4) It protects nitrogen fixing enzyme nitrogenase from oxygen

Ans. (3)

11. Cyathium is characterized by

(1) Single female flower surrounded by many male flowers

(2) As involucres of bracts enclosing all the flowers

(3) Fleshy inflorescence axis with a pear shaped cavity inside

(4) Single male flower surrounded by many female flowers

Ans. (2)

12. Parietal placentation is found in the members of

(1) Family Cucurbitaceae

(2) Family Solanaceae

(3) Family Brassicaceae

(4) Family leguminosae

Ans. (4)

13. Which of the following is true regarding Guttation?

(1) Occurs through stomata

(2) Occurs through hydathodes

(3) Loss of pure water

(4) Occurs mostly during night and early morning

Ans. (3)

14. Which of the following statements are true for complementary genes?

(1) Both the genes interact to produce a complementary new trait

(2) Pair of nonallelic genes

(3) The F₂ ratio is generally 9: 7

(4) The F₂ ratio is generally 9: 3: 4

Ans. (1)

15. Coenzymes

(1) Act as a donor of groups of atoms added to the substrate

(2) Act as an acceptor of groups of atoms removed from the substrate

(3) Can not be easily separated from apoenzyme

(4) Do not act as prosthetic group

Ans. (2)

16. Suckers are

(1) Formed from the internodes of underground stem

(2) Formed from the node of underground stem

(3) Roots which are formed from the upper portion of nodes

(4) Roots which are formed from the lower portion of nodes

Ans. (3)

17. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces

(1) NADPH

(2) ATP and O₂

(3) ATP only

(4) O₂ only

Ans. (2)

18. C₄ pathway occurs

(1) Only in monocots

(3) In most of the dicats

(2) In monocots

(4) In few dicots

Ans. (3)

19. Link between glycolysis, Krebs’ cycle and ?-oxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and fat metabolism is

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) A compound formed by oxidative de-carboxylation

(3) A 2-carbon compound

(4) oxaloacetic acid

Ans. (1)

20. The enzymes taking part in recombinant DNA technology are

(1) Restriction Endonuclease

(2) Ligase

(3) Reverse transcriptase

(4) Phosphates

Ans. (2)

21. The mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria are

(1) Formation of gametes

(2) Endospore formation

(3) Conjugation

(4) Zoospores formation

Ans. (3)

22. Acid rain is caused by

(1) Sulphur dioxide

(2) Hydrogen chloride

(3) Nitrogen oxides

(4) Phosphates

Ans. (1)

23. Censer mechanism is found in

(1) Aristolochia

(2) Antlrrhinum

(3) Papaver

(4) Cletnatis

Ans. (1)

24. Aerenchyma is present in which of the following plants?

(1) Neptunia

(2) Potamogeton

(3) Bryophyllum

(4) Vallesneria

Ans. (3)

25. One internodes long phylloclade is found in

(1) Ruscus

(2) Opuntia

(3) Asparagus

(4) Calotropis

Ans. (4)

Zoology

1. Lymphoid tissue is found in:

(a) Thymus

(b) Tonsils

(c) Lymph nodes

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

2. Most widely used bioweapon is:

(a) Bacillus subtilis

(b) Pseudomonas putida

(c) Bacillus anthracis

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

3. The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is

(a) Vitamin-A

(b) Vitamin-B

(c) Vitamin-C

(d) Vitamin-K

Ans. (d)

4. The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment?

(a) 14^th

(b) 16^th

(c) 18^th

(d) 15^th

Ans. (a)

5. Polyp phase is absent in:

(a) Hydra

(b) Aurelia

(c) Physalia

(d) Obelia

Ans. (b)

6. In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles which consist of fibres called

(a) Purkinje fibres

(b) Myonemes

(c) Telodendria

(d) Columnae camae

Ans. (a)

7. Malpighian tubules are:

(a) Excretory organs of insects

(b) Excretory organs of frog

(c) Respiratory organs of insects

(d) Endocrine glands of insects

Ans. (a)

8. Pacemaker is:

(a) AV node

(b) SA node

(c) Bundle of His

(d) Purkinje fibres

Ans. (b)

9. LH and FSH are collectively called:

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Somatotrophins

(c) Luteotrophic

(d) Gonadotrophins

Ans. (d)

10. Who is known as “father of Endocrinology”?

(a) R.H. Whittaker

(b) Pasteur

(c) Einthoven

(d) Thomas Addison

Ans. (d)

11. Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?

(a) Fossils

(b) Morphology

(c) Embryo

(d) Vestigial organs

Ans. (a)

12. In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called:

(a) Ostractum

(b) Operculum

(c) Ommatophores

(d) Osphradium

Ans. (c)

13. Among the following, colonial insects are:

(a) Locusts

(b) Mosquitoes

(c) White ants

(d) Bed bug

Ans. (c)

14. In Ascaris, the coelom is:

(a) Schizocoelom

(b) Pseudocoelom

(c) True coelom

(d) Haemocoelom

Ans. (b)

15. ‘Turbellarians’ are free living:

(a) Nematodes

(b) Cestodes

(c) Flat worms

(d) Trematodes

Ans. (c)

16. The characteristic larva of phylum ‘Coelenterata’ is:

(a) Planula

(b) Cysticercus

(c) Rhabdiform

(d) Wriggler

Ans. (a)

17. Podocytes are the cells, present in:

(a) Cortex of nephron

(b) Inner wall of Bowman4s capsule

(c) Outer wall of Bowman s capsule

(d) Wall of glomerular capillaries

Ans. (b)

18. In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis is called:

(a) Vas deferens

(b) Cauda epididymis

(c) Gubernaculum

(d) Caput epididymis

Ans. (d)

19. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of:

(a) Nervous tissue

(b) Muscular tissue

(c) Epithelial tissue

(d) Fibrous connective tissue

Ans. (d)

20. In blood, CO₂ is transported majorly as:

(a) Sodium carbonate

(b) Carboxyhaemoglobin

(c) Bicarbonate

(d) CO₂ as such

Ans. (c)

21. Animals undergoes inactive stage during winter, is known as

(a) Aestivation

(b) Hibernation

(c) Adaptation

(d) Acclimatization

Ans. (b)

22. Kupffer cells are present in:

(a) Liver

(b) Small intestine

(c) Pancreas

(d) Thyroid gland

Ans. (a)

23. The embryo at 16 celled stages is known as:

(a) Morula

(b) Gastrula

(c) Blastula

(d) Blastomere

Ans. (a)

24. Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for:

(a) Respiration

(b) Excretion

(c) Locomotion

(d) Osmoregulation

Ans. (d)

25. In which of the following, putrefying bacteria is present?

(a) Intestine

(b) Colon

(c) Stomach

(d) Liver

Ans. (a)

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Posted in: Biology , botany , Question and Answers , quiz , test , Zoology

objective zoology for PMT

objective zoology for PMT
Objective Biology Zoology for PMT 10+2
Free Biology Cbse Pmt Online Practice Test
1. Three most abundant elements in protoplasm are
(a) carbon, sodium and hydrogen
(b) carbon, hydrogen and O2
(c) nitrogen, carbon and O2
(d) carbon, phosphorus and oxygen
Ans. (b)

2. External ears are characteristics of:
(a) mammals
(b) reptiles
(c) amphibian
(d) pisces
Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) Animal cells never contain chloroplast unlike many plant cells
(b) Animal cells contain ultra scopic chloroplast while plant cells contain micro-scopic chloroplast
(c) Plant cells have cellulosic cell wall while animal cells do not
(d) Plant cells have central vacuoles while animal cells do not
Ans. (b)

4. Trypnosoma is transmitted by:
(a) contamination
(b) inoculation
(c) contagious
(d) touch
Ans. (b)

5. Point mutation can be created by:
(a) deletion
(b) insertion or addition
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c)

6. Mitochondria are often seen aggregated around:
(a) food vacuole
(b) contractile vacuole
(c) water vacuole
(d) all of these
Ans. (b)

7. Protein which is both enzymatic and structural:
(a) trypsin
(b) actin
(c) troponin
(d) myosin
Ans. (d)

8. When an animal turns sideways to the Sun to get the maximum amount of sun on its flanks, this is an example of:
(a) motivation
(b) habitation
(c) posture
(d) orientation
Ans. (d)

9. Insulin and glucagon:
(a) both are lipids
(b) both are protein
(c) insulin is protein and glucagon is lipid
(d) Insulin is lipid and glucagon is a protein
Ans. (b)

10. Addison’s disease results from:
(a) hypertrophy of gonad
(b) hyposecretion of adrenal cortex
(c) hyperactivity of leydig cells
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

11. During diastole, the heart is filled with:
(a) deoxygenated blood
(b) venous blood
(c) mixed blood
(d) oxygenated blood
Ans. (b)

12. Receptors of sensation produced when a person eats red chillies are located on which part of tongue?
(a) Tip
(b) Base
(c) Side
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

13. Colorado tick fever is caused by the agent:
(a) bacteria
(b) virus
(c) Nematoda
(d) fungi
Ans. (c)

14. Gemmule formation in sponges is helpful in:
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) only dissemination
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

15. The coelomic fluid oozes from the surface of earthworms to keep the skin moist, it escapes from:
(a) coelomic pores
(b) dorsal pores
(c) nephridiopores
(d) genital pores
Ans. (b)

16. Chloragogen cells of earthworms are analogous to vertebrate:
(a) lungs
(b) liver
(c) gut
(d) kidney
Ans. (b)

17. Haemophilia in man causes:
(a) blindness
(b) loss of haemoglobin
(c) no clotting of blood
(d) rickets
Ans. (c)

18. House fly possesses:
(a) two pairs of wings
(b) one pair of wing
(c) three pairs of wings
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)

19. This is not the cell of areolar tissue:
(a) macrophages
(b) Schwann cell
(c) plasma cell
(d) adipose cell
Ans. (b)

20. Vermiform appendix is a part of:
(a) alimentary canal
(b) nervous system
(c) vascular system
(d) reproductive system
Ans. (a)

21. The lytic enzymes released by sperm are:
(a) acrosome
(b) ligase
(c) androgamone
(d) hyaluronidase
Ans. (d)

22. The digestion of starch by amylase is completed in the:
(a) mouth
(b) oesophagus
(c) stomach
(d) duodenum
Ans. (a)

23. Indentify the edible freshwater teleosts:
(a) sharks
(b) rays and skates.
(c) hilsa ilisha
(d) catla catla
Ans. (d)

24. In bacteria OriC consists of:
(a) 1240 nucleotides
(b) 540 nucleotides
(c) 110 nucleotides
(d) 245 nucleotides
Ans. (d)
25. Nissi’s granules are characteristic of:
(a) muscle tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) nerve tissue
(d) epithelial tissue
Ans. (c)

26. Joint between femur and acetabulum is known as:
(a) ball and socket joint
(b) pivotal joint
(c) hind joint
(d) saddle joint
Ans. (a)

27. Believers in spontaneous generation theory assumed that:
(a) organisms arose only from other similar organisms
(b) organisms could arise oily from air
(c) organisms arose-from non-living material
(d) organisms always arise from air
Ans.(c)

28. Which one are correctively matched?
(a) Vitamin E-tocopherol
(b) Vitamin D-riboflavin
(c) Vitamin B-calciferol
(d) Vitamin A-thiamine
Ans. (a)

29. Which fish selectively mosquito?
(a) Gambusia
(b) Rohu
(c) Clarias
(d) Exocoetus
Ans. (a)

30. Gill cover is absent in
(a) Shark
(c) Salmon
(b) Labeo
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)

31. The cyst wall of Euglena is made up of
(a) Lipids
(b) Histones
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Lipoproteins
Ans. (c)

32. The class of coelenterate which exhibits polymorphism?
(a) Hydrozoa
(b) Scyphozoa
(c) Anthozoa
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)

33. Which pairing is not correct?
(a) Stegomyia — Yellow fever
(b) Pediculus —Trench fever
(c) Culex — Malaria
(d) Xenopsylla —Bubonic plague
Ans. (c)

34. ADP contains:
(a) One high energy bond
(b) Two high energy bond
(c) Three high energy bond
(d) Four high energy bond
Ans. (a)

35. Retroviruses have:
(a) Only RNA as genetic material
(b) Only DNA as genetic material
(c) Both DNA and RNA
(d) Genes on nucleoprotein complexes as genetic material
Ans. (a)

36. Which of the following is colourless Hydra?
(a) Hydra fusca
(b) Hydra viridis
(c) Hydra oligactis
(d) Hydra vulgaris
Ans. (d)

37. The blood cells are formed in bone marrow. The process is known as:
(a) Haemolysis
(b) Erythroblastosis
(c) Haemopoiesis
(d) Thrombopoiesis
Ans. (c)

38. Transfer of genes from one bacterium to another through viruses, is called:
(a) Transduction
(b) Transformation
(c) Transcription
(d) Transition
Ans. (a)

39. Power of regeneration in sponges is due to
(a) Theocytes
(b) Amoebocytes
(c) Archaeocytes
(d) Scleroblast
Ans. (b)

40. Blood of Pheretima is:
(a) Blue with Haemocyanin in corpuscles
(b) Blue with hemoglobin in corpuscles
(c) Red with hemoglobin in corpuscles
(d) Red with hemoglobin in plasma
Ans. (d)

41. Function of rectal papillae of cockroach is:
(a) Absorption of amino acids
(b) Absorption of fats
(c) Absorption of glucose
(d) Absorption of water
Ans. (d)

42. Blood of Balanoglossus is:
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Colourless
Ans. (d)

43. In fishes the lateral line receptors are neuromast organs. These are:
(a) Olfactoreceptors
(b) Gustoreceptors
(c) Rheoreceptors
(d) Chemoreceptors
Ans. (c)

44. The flight muscles of birds are attached to:
(a) Coracoids
(b) Scapula
(c) Keel of sternum
(d) Clavicle
Ans. (c)

45. Stenson’s duct opens at:
(a) Upper first premolar
(b) Upper 2nd premolar
(c) Upper first molar
(d) Upper second molar
Ans. (d)

46. Enterokinase takes part in conversion of:
(a) Pepsinogen to pepsin
(b) Trypsinogen to trypsin,
(c) Protein into polypeptides
(d) Caseinogen into casein
Ans. (b)

47. Depression of nervous system including the respiratory centre is called:
(a) Neuritis
(b) Sciatica
(c) Neuralgia
(d) Narcosis
Ans. (d)

48. Which has the thickest walls?
(a) Right atrium
(b) Left atrium
(c) Right ventricle
(d) Left ventricle
Ans. (d)

49. Digital formula of arms in man is:
(a) 0, 2, 3, 3, 3
(b) 0, 3, 2, 3, 3
(c) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3
(d) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3
Ans. (d)

50. The number of ribs in our body are:
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 36
Ans. (c)

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Posted in: Biology , PMT , Question and Answers , quiz , test , Zoology

Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam

Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam
Sample Questions on General Awareness
Very useful For BED Entrance exams
Can be used as practice papers for other entrance exams
1. The aim of the ISRO,s OCEANSAT-2 satellite is
(A) to provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) to aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) to aid weathermen to forecast cylones and weather conditions
(D) All of the above
D

2. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
A

3. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(A) Aircraft carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
B

4. The age of a tree can be calculated by
(A) number of branches
(B) its height
(C) girth of its trunk
(D) number of its annual rings
D

5. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise.
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers.
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output.
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase.
D

6. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
D

7. A rolling plan refers to a plan which
(A) does not change its targets every year.
(B) changes its allocations every year.
(C) changes its allocations and targets every year.
(D) changes only its targets every year.
C

8. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is
(A) open market operations
(B) credit rationing
(C) change in reserve ratio
(D) bank rate policy
D

9. Laissez-faire is a feature of
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
C

10. Which one of the-following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
D

11. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
B

12. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
B

13. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
C

14. According to J.A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their ______ activities.
(A innovative
(B) risk taking
(C)risk averting
(D) hard work
A

15. Demonstration effect means
(A) effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) effect of entertainment
(D effect of an experiment
D

16. Homogeneous product is a feature
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
C

17. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(Q) Directive Principles of State Policy
D

.18. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic ‘assessment of the Government”
(A) Dr. B Ambedkar
(B) Shri B.N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A

19. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
A

20. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is
(A)30 minutes
(B) one hour
(C)two hours
(D) unspecified
B

21. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
C

22. When will demand become a grant?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
C

23. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
A

24. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
D

25. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice- President can be heard by
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
C

256. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of
(A) the village, the block and the district levels
(B) the mandal and the district levels
(C) the village, the district and the State levels
(D) the village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
A

27. Which of the following has banned ‘floor Crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
A

28. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to
(A) those sections of society which pay Income-tax.
(B) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced.
(C) those sections of ‘the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) all sections of upper castes of the society
B

29. When was the Panchtantra written?
(A) Maurya period
(B) Kanishka period
(C) Gupta period
(D) Harsha period
C

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Posted in: BEd , Question and Answers , quiz , test

BEd Entrance Exam previous questions Commerce group

BEd Entrance Exam previous questions Commerce group
B.Ed. Entrance Question Bank
BEd Exam online Solved Paper prepare for BEd Entrance by Answering old and previous Questions
1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)

2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)

3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)

4. Balance in ‘Nazrana a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P & L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)

5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on —
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)

6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)

8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost + 25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)

10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonored, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)

12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)

13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)

14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4: 4: 3: 2
(B) 4: 3: 2: 1
(C) 5: 4: 3: 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3: 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)

16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60,000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24,000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21, 000
(B) Rs.9, 000
(C) Rs. 15,000
(D) Rs. 6,000
Ans. (D)

17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(B) Rs.600000
(C) Rs. 800000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)

18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)

19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking
company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)

20. If accrued outstanding premium is given in• the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

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