English Comprehension Model test For ASRB jobs Assistants (Direct Recruitments) in ICAR

English Comprehension Model test For ASRB jobs Assistants (Direct Recruitments) in ICAR
ASRB ASSISTANTS RECRUITMENT JOBS PRACTICE PAPER
Sample Questions English Comprehension for Assistants in ICAR
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question that are gives below

Though the top leaders of the nationalist movement were the policy framers, the immediate day-to-day leadership was provided by the middle class intellectuals. The rural origin of the industrial labour force together with rampant illiteracy and their simplistic docility attracted social workers mainly drawn from the middle class intellectuals. they had an obvious advantage. Not being employees, the leaders were free from fear of victimization and immune from risks of leadership. Being generally well-educated, they had a better perspective and sense of organisation needed. They could see the issues in a broader context. They belonged to a higher social plane than the workers and with good education and intellectual development comparable to the best among employers, they could meet the employers on their own plane, and carry on negotiations on an equal footing. According to the Royal Commission on Labour in India, “the effect of this surge was enhanced by the political turmoil which added to the prevailing feelings of unrest and assisted to provide willing leaders of a trade union movement.” But, outside leadership had led to politicization of the movement.

Politicization of the labour movement in India has contributed both to its strength and its weakness. While economic hardship was present all along as a latent force, the major impetus for growth of Unionism was primarily provided by the major political currents, particularly movements for national independence. But for the zeal and the organizing ability which the leaders of the nationalist movement brought to bear upon the Indian Trade Union Movement, it would not have gained the dimensions and the position it had by 1909 within only a decade of its formal start.

1. Leadership to Trade Union was provided by the middle class intellectuals in India because

(a) they were the active participants in the nationalist movement

(b) they were the literates among the workers

(c) they were able to negotiate with employers on equal terms

(d) the workers did not want any one among the to be their leader

Ans. (c)

2. During the early years Trade Union Movement gained greater dimensions because

(a) the workers accepted outside leaders

(b) it started along with the independence movement

(c) the leaders were well educated with broad perspectives

(d) the leaders were devoted to the welfare of workers

Ans. (b)

3. Suggest a suitable title to the passage

(a) Trade Union Movement in India

(b) Royal Commission on Trade Union Movement

(c) Outside leadership to Trade Unions

(d) Negotiation with employers

Ans. (a)

4. What would be the reason for workers not coming forward to take up the leadership in Trade Union Movement in the early years?

(a) Lack of time

(b) Illiteracy

(c) Fear of victimization

(d) Risk in leadership

Ans. (b)

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that are given below

During the first decade of the movement, the All-India Trade Union Congress was dominated by the nationalist leaders, and consequently the dominant feature was the political goal of achieving freedom from foreign rule. However, ideological considerations soon invaded the area. Success of the Revolution in the U.S.S.R. encouraged the fellow- travellers in India to penetrate into the labour movement. They perceived just as the leaders of the nationalist movement did a decade ago a very powerful weapon in the proletarian movement which could substantially advance their objectives of leading the AITUC away from the I.L.O., from cooperation with the British Labour Party and forcing a split in the nationalist movement. Simultaneously, the leaders of the nationalist movement became more engrossed with their primary, objective of win-

fling national freedom, and it facilitated the Communist Party of India to secure a dominant position in the All-India Trade Union Congress towards the end of the twenties. Curiously enough, the hold of the Communist Party over the AITUC has remained unchanged since then, except for a brief spell when the nationalists rallied under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose in the eleventh session of the AITUC in 1931, and the Communist Group under the leadership of B.T. Randive and SV. Deshpande came out to form the All-India Red Trade Union Congress, even though there had been spells of flow and ebb in the position of the AITUC in the labour movement as a whole. The AITUC had been adapting its policy to the policies of the Communist party, the direction of whose policies was decided upon on the basis of the immediate goals and objectives of the world communist movement. This, as well as ideological and personal objectives of the leaders of the movement, had often led to spells of splits.

5. The Communist Party of India gained dominant position in the AITUC as a result of

(a) the influence of the success of the Russian Revolution

(b) the leaders in AITUC devoting much of their time for the national freedom movement

(c) the bringing in of ideological changes in the movement

(d) the AITUC relieving itself of its relationship with ILO

Ans. (a)

6. The AITUC broke its link with British Labour Party because

(a) the leaders joined the nationalist movement and were opposed to the British

(b) there was a split in the nationalist movement itself

(c) the proletarian movement was organized by the Communist Party

(d) All India Red Trade Union Congress was formed to compete with AITUC

Ans. (a)

7. There were flows and ebbs in the AITUC because

(a) the Communist Party entered in the Trade Union Movement

(b) there were no effective leadership continuity in the AITUC

(c) if broke its relationship with ILO

(d) new unions were started by people belonging to various political parties

Ans. (a)

8. The Communist Party continues to have its hold on AITUC

(a) from the beginning of the thirties

(b) since the Russian Revolution

(c) from the beginning of the Proletarian movement

(d) when AITUC lost its link with British Labour Party

Ans. (d)

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions

The all girls’ school in Kharal, an isolated village in Haryana on the way to Patiala, is special because in an increasingly urban world where subjects like Sanskrit are considered an anachronism, Kanya Gurukul believes that tradition provides the best education. It has become the most sought after school among the lower-middle class—who earlier often ignored their daughters’ education—in Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and even in Nepal. Apart from earning the trust of parents, bringing about attitudinal changes is perhaps the Kanya Gurukul’s finest achievement since Swami Ratan Dev of the Arya Samaj took the first step in fighting the social bias against women’s education. However, some diverse opinions also exist. A father said, “I sent my daughter here not just to improve her grades, but also to save her from the hooligans in the buses.”

With education has come a transformation in the status of the girl child. “About 20 years ago the girls of Kharal and the adjoining villages were treated so shabbily that they were not even given a salwar to wear with the kameez.” The villages today get sons in-law from well-to-do families.

9. The all girls schools in Kharal is unique because

(a) It is an isolated village

(b) It imparts traditional learning

(c) The teaching of Sanskrit is avoided

(d) It is like an urban school

Ans. (B)

10. This school can be considered a successful venture as

(a) The girls find an open atmosphere here

(b) It caters to a wide area

(c) It has resulted in a changed outlook towards girls’ education

(d) The school was started in a traditional rural environment

Ans. (C)

11. As a residential institution it provides

(a) Protection from anti-social elements

(b) Traditional education

(c) Traditional social biases

(d) Opportunities for schooling

Ans. (D)

12. The school has helped to bring in

(a) Economic change

(b) Social change

(c) Change in family structure

(d) Change in village structure

Ans. (C)

Directions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which is

NUMBERED. These NUMBERS are printed below the passage and against each, some words are suggested, one of which fits the blanks most appropriately. Select the appropriate words in each case.

Man has always considered himself to be the ruler of his planet. This . . . (13)… and the

attendant superiority feeling has made him look down . . . (14)… other creatures who co-exist with humans on this earth. The so called ‘civilized’ human race has . . . (15)…, and ill-treated small and large animal species to prove his . . .(16)…. It is common knowledge that in the name of scientific experiments . . . (17)… numbers of animals are tortured.

13. (A) pleasure

(B) fact

(C) force

(D) arrogance

Ans. (D)

14. (A) in

(B) upon

(C) with

(D) into

Ans. (B)

15. (A) criticized

(B) devalued

(C) protected

(D) enlarged

Ans. (B)

16. (A) supremacy

(B) wisdom

(C) cleverness

(D) instinct

Ans. (A)

17. (A) tall

(B) plenty

(C) countless

(D) diverse

Ans. (C)

Directions: Questions are given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate words. Four alternatives have been suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.

18. You should adhere ……… your principles.

(A) on

(B) with

(C) to

(D) upon

Ans. (C)

19. If you had informed me, I …….. cautious.

(A) would be

(B) had been

(C) would have been

(D) could have been

Ans. (C)

20. It ……… since early morning.

(A) will rain

(B) is raining

(C) rained

(D) has been raining

Ans. (D)

21. ……….knowledge is a dangerous thing.

(A) Less

(B) Little

(C) A little

(D) The little

Ans. (C)

22. ……….large city Kanpur has become in ten years.

(A) What

(B) What a

(C) How

(D) How a

Ans. (B)

23. I shall not come ………. you need me.

(A) if not

(B) without

(C) except

(D) unless

Ans. (D)

24. He prayed that his brother ………. safely.

(A) arrived

(B) may arrive

(C) might arrive

(D) would arrive

Ans. (C)

25. I hate sitting ……… him as he always smells of garlic.

(A) along

(B) beside

(C) besides

(D) at

Ans. (B)

26. No sooner did he ring the bell ……….. a servant appeared at the door.

(A) when

(B) immediately

(C) as

(D) than

Ans. (D)

Directions: Identify the word EXACTLY OPPOSITE in MEANING to the given capital bold word.

27. EXTRAVAGANT

(A) Developing

(B) Wonderful

(C) Disappearing

(D) Economical

Ans. (D)

28. OPAQUE

(A) Misty

(B) Covered

(C) Clear

(D) Transport

Ans. (D)

29. MALIGN

(A) Disparage

(B) Slander

(C) Praise

(D) Purify

Ans. (C)

30. ONEROUS

(A) Straightforward

(B) Easy

(C) Complex

(D) Plain

Ans. (B)

31. NOMINAL

(A) Huge

(B) Clear

(C) Real

(D) Solid

Ans. (A)

Directions: Identify the word with correct spelling.

32. (A) Tariff

(B) Tarriff

(C) Tarif

(D) Tarrif

Ans. (A)

33. (A) Blisfull

(B) Blissful

(C) Blisful

(D) Blissfull

Ans. (B)

34. (A) Coruppt

(B) Curropt

(C) Corrupt

(D) Currupt

Ans. (C)

35. (A) Giraf

(B) Gerraffe

(C) Geraff

(D) Giraffe

Ans. (D)

36. (A) Alottee

(B) Allotee

(C) Alotte

(D) Allottee

Ans. (D)

Directions:Choose the most appropriate ‘one word substitute’ out of the four choices given under each.

37. A process involving too much official formality—

(A) Nepotism

(B) Red-tapism

(C) Diplomacy

(D) Bureaucracy

Ans. (B)

38. One who cannot die —

(A) Stable

(B) Perpetual

(C) Immortal

(D) Perennial

Ans. (C)

39. A person who looks to the dark side of things—

(A) Pessimist

(B) Optimist

(C) Optician

(D) Obstetrician

Ans. (A)

40. Words different in meaning but similar in sound—

(A) Synonym

(B) Antonym

(C) Acronym

(D) Homonym

Ans. (D)

41. An elderly unmarried women—

(A) Bachelor

(B) Spinster

(C) Adult

(D) Witch

Ans. (B)

Directions: Select the combination of numbers so that letters/words arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word.

42. G T A E N M

1  2  3  4  5 6

(A) 1 3 2 5 4 6

(B) 1 3 2 6 4 5

(C) 6 3 5 1 4 2

(D) 6 3 1 5 4 2

Ans. (D)

43. D I F E R N

1  2 3 4 5  6

(A) 1 4 3 6 2 5

(B) 6 4 3 5 2 1

(C) 3 5 2 4 6 1

(D) 5 4 3 2 6 1

Ans. (C)

44. I P F L O C

1 2 3 4  5   6

(A) 1 4 3 5 2 6

(B) 2 5 4 1 6 3

(C) 3 5 4 1 2 6

(D) 4 5 1 2 3 6

Ans. (B)

45. R T A N U E

1  2  3  4  5 6

(A) 1 3 2 6 4 5

(B) 3 2 4 6 1 5

(C) 4 3 2 5 1 6

(D) 4 6 5 2 3 1

Ans. (C)

46. E T C K O P

1  2 3  4  5  6

(A) 3 1 4 5 6 2

(B) 6 5 3 4 1 2

(C) 2 1 6 5 3 4

(D) 4 1 2 3 5 6

Ans. (B)

Directions:: Select the correct alternative which best expresses them the meaning of the given Idiom/phrase—

47. Hobson’s choice—

(A) Feeling of insecurity

(B) Accept or leave the offer

(C) Feeling of strength

(D) Excellent choice

Ans. (B)

48. All a Gog—

(A) Everybody

(B) Already

(C) Restless

(D) Almighty

Ans. (C)

49. A pipe dream—

(A) A pleasant dream

(B) A bad dream

(C) An impracticable plan

(D) A foolish idea

Ans. (D)

50. Banker’s order—

(A) Allowance

(B) Twelve

(C) Standing order

(D) Compensation

Ans. (C)

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UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 Part 1

UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 part 1
CIVIL Engineering Objective questions
Solved objective civil engineering UPSC IES Paper
Indian Engineering Services UPS Solved Papers 2010

1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

2.

A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero

3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN

4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0

5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)

6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20

7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only

9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

10.

A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions R_A and R_C will be .
A R_A = —10 kN and R_C = —15 kN
B. R_A =10kN and R_C=—55 kN
C. R_A =—15kN and R_C=—10kN
D. R_A =15kN ànd R_Cc=—40kN

11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm².

12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only

13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%

14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only

15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant

16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases

17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm².. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero

18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4

19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant

20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L

Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.

22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.

23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.

24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.

25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.

26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.

27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.

28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.

2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.

30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.

31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.

32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.

33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.

34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.

35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.

36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.

37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.

38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.

39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.

40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.

41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection

42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement

43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m

44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7

45.

For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [r_x = 83 mm, r_y= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136

46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘L_s and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length L_h, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is

49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero

ANSWERS:

1	A
2	D
3	D
4	C
5	B
6	D
7	D
8	B
9	C
10	C
11	D
12	C
13	D
14	D
15	C
16	A
17	A
18	C
19	C
20	C
21	B
22	B
23	C
24	A
25	A
26	B
27	C
28	B
29	A
30	D
31	A
32	D
33	A
34	A
35	#
36	A
37	A
38	C
39	B
40	A
41	B
42	D
43	D
44	D
45	D
46	B
47	C
48	C
49	C
50	B

CHECK PART 2

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