Showing posts with label test. Show all posts
Showing posts with label test. Show all posts

Tuesday, May 17, 2011

Common Law Admission Test CLAT practice paper General Awareness


Common Law Admission Test  CLAT  practice paper  General Awareness
Practice Test Paper For CLAT Common Law Admission Test
free Sample Questions
Online Free MCQ Quiz
1. Which of the following gave a tough resistance in India to the army of Alexander?
(A) Bimbsara
(B) Bindusara
(C) Poras
(D) Harshvardhan
Ans. (C)
2. Alberuni accompanied to India with—
(A) Mohammad Ghori
(B) Mabmud of Ghazni
(C) Timurlang
(D) Ahmad Shah Abdali
Ans. (B)
3. Which of the following are the Indian astronomer and mathematician during the reign of?
Chandragupta Vikarmaditya?
(A) Charak
(B) Banbhatta
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) Susrut
Ans. (C)
4. Russia sent troops during the end of 1979 to—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
Ans. (C)
5. Analects is the sacred book of—
(A) Taoism
(B) Confucianism
(C) Judaism
(D) Shintoism
Ans. (A)
6. Which of the following held the post of Deputy Prime Minister of India simultaneously with Jagjivan Ram?
(A) Y. B. Chavan
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Guljari Lal Nanda
(D) B. D. Jatti
Ans. (B)
7. Which one of the following is popularly called ‘Dakshin Ganga’?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Godavari
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Krishna
Ans. (B)
8. Which state in India is called the ‘Garden of Spices’?
(A) Assam
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans. (C)
9. Synagogue is the place of worship of—
(A) Taosim
(B) Zoroastrianism
(C) Judaism
(D) Shintoism
Ans. (C)
10. The first Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Tinbergen and Frisch in—
(A) 1969
(B) 1968
(C) 1970
(D) 1967
Ans. (A)
11. Mohoroviac Discontinuity is—
(A) A tear fault in ocean floor
(B) The boundary between Earth’s crust and mantle
(C) Sliding rigid Plates of lithosphere
(D) Mid-Atlantic ridge
Ans. (B)
12. Aspirin is—
(A) Methyl Salicylate
(B) Methyl Benzoic Acid
(C) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
(D) Phenyl Salicylate
Ans. (C)
13. The United Nations Organization was established in—
(A) 1944
(B) 1945
(C) 1950
(D) 1939
Ans. (B)
14. The first Afro-Asian Conference where Panchsheel was advocated was held in—
(A) Cairo
(B) Algiers
(C) Bandung
(D) Colombo
Ans. (C)
15. Super 301 envisages retaliatory action by the United States against countries it believes, to be—
(A) Incurring large external debts and failing in its debt repayment
(B) Violating human rights
(C) Against free enterprise
(D) Blocking free international trade practices
Ans. (D)
16. The first Chairman of Administrative Reforms Committee was—
(A) K. Hanumanthia
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V.K.R.V. Rao
(D) Amul Desai
Ans. (B)
17. The present Indian Constitution came into force in—
(A) 1949
(C) 1952
(B) 1950
(D) 1148
Ans. (B)
18. From each according to his ability, to each according to his work’ is the basis of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Communism
(D) Fascism
Ans. (C)
19. The term ‘Stagflations’ is used to describe—
(A) Fixed prices and wages
(B) Stagnation in production and inflation
(C) High productivity and price rise
(D) A stagnant economy
Ans. (B)
20. The abbreviation ‘UNEF’ stands for—
(A) United National Eritrean Front
(B) United Nations Emergency Force
(C) United Nations Educational Faculty
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
21. “Workers of the World Unite” was said by the following—
(A) Karl Marx
(C) Chanakya
(B) Machiavelli
(D) John Stuart Mill
Ans. (A)
22. The term ‘Coup of the teat’ is used for—
(A) Peaceful co-existence of super powers
(B) Constitutional change of government
(C) Change of government due to the death of highest authority
(D) Violent overthrow of government
Ans. (D)
23. Karl Popper is a great name associated with—
(A) Social philosophy
(B) Drama
(C) Psychoanalyst
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
24. Name the person who was popularly known as “Deshbandhu”.
(A) A.G. Khan
(C) C.F. Andrews
(B) C.R. Das
(D) D. Naoroji
Ans. (B)
25. The author of the ancient Hindu Law is—
(A) Panin
(B) Valmiki
(C) Manu
(D) Lord Krishna
Ans. (C)

Free Study Material Online MCQ Quiz Common Law Admission Test CLAT


Free Study Material Online MCQ Quiz Common Law Admission Test CLAT
Reasoning Free online test for CLAT
Reasoning Test For CLAT Common law Admission Test
Online Free MCQ Quiz
Multiple Choice Solved Questions CLAT
1. A student ranks 18th in the class of 45, what is his rank from the last?
(A) 27th
(B) 28th
(C) 29th
(D) 30th
Ans. (B)
2. In a row of boys Sandesh is 8th from the right and Chunkey is 12th from the left ,when Sandesh and Chunkey interchange their positions, Chunkey becomes 21st from the left which of the following will be Sandesh’s position from the right?
(A) 8th
(B) 17th
(C) 21st
(D) Cannot be determined
Ans. (B)
Directions:Answer the following questions based on the following alphabet— ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST UVWXYZ
3. If every even letter beginning from ‘B’ is replaced by odd number beginning with 3, which number/letter will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) 23
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
4. If the alphabet is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting with Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle in the remaining letters of alphabet?
(A) M
(B) O
(C) M or O
(D) N
Ans. (D)
5. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following sequence?
BZA  DYE  GXI  KWM?
(A) OVT
(B) NUQ
(C) PVQ
(D) QUA
Ans. (C)
6. If you pick up from the alphabet, the sixth and the fourteenth letters from your right and then pick up, the fifth and the twentieth letters from your left and form a meaningful word, what is the first letter of that word ?
(A) M
(B) B
(C) No meaningful word can be formed
(D) More
Ans. (A)
7. In a certain code ‘FORM’ is written as ‘ERQP’ How will’ CLEAN’ be written in that code?
(A) BOFDO
(C) BODDM
(B) GKHBQ
(D) GMKBQ
Ans. (C)
8. If sign ‘—‘ means ‘plus’ sign ‘+‘ means ‘minus’ sign x means ‘divided by’ and sign ‘÷‘ means ‘multiplied by’. Then simplify— 7—8 x 5 ÷ 6 + 4
(A) 3
(B) 12
(C) l2 3/5
(D) 48 /5
Ans. (C)
9. If ‘—‘ (minus) means ‘multiplied by’, ‘x’ means ‘plus’, ‘+‘means ‘divided by’ and ‘÷‘ means ‘minus’, than the value of 14— l0 x 4 ÷ 16 + 8 is—
(A) 134
(B) 142
(C) 6
(D) 2
Ans. (B)
10. In a club, 20 per cent of the members own only two cars each, 40% of the remaining own 3 cars each and the remaining members own only one car each. Which of the following statements is definitely true from the given statements ?
(A) Only 20% of the total members own three cars each
(B) 48% of the total members own one car each
(C) 60% of the total members own at least two cars each
(D) 80% of the total members own at least one car
Ans. (B)
11. “The Journalists who indulge in yellow journalism should be put behind the bar”. Which of the following would be the strongest argument against this suggestion?
(A) There is bound to be a strong opposition from press
(B) Why only journalists ? What about politicians ?
(C) We should concentrate on other major issues of national importance
(D) Yellow journalism is nothing but little essential spice added to actual happenings around us.
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 12-14): In a village of Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh, only two types of people live who belong to a tribal class. The first type is known as class A, while the other is known as class B. In that village, there is no other type of person except these two. The activities of both types of people are governed by perfectly patterned norms of social behaviour. Each person of the tribe has to obey the norms. They are rigid about this.
As far as marriage is concerned, the following norms are to be followed—
I. The people of class A cannot marry any other member of their own class though they can marry members of class B.
II. After being married, each male member ceases to be a member of that class in which he was born but, automatically, he becomes the member of the other class to which his wife belongs.
III. As far as fema1esare concerned, they remain the members qf their own class after being married.
IV. On his birth, the child automatically becomes the member of his mother’s
class.
V. When any male member becomes widower or divorcee, then he again belongs to the group in which he was born.
VI. No body can marry more than one person according to social laws.
12. One boy, who was born in class B (boy and his wife both can have married and unmarried brothers), which of the following is true—
(A) Can have his uncle which from any class
(B) Can have his daughter in class B
(C) Can have a before divorced son in class B
(D) Can have a son-in-law born in class A
Ans. (C)
13. Which of the following marriage is not permissible according to the social laws?
(A) Any boy of class B marries his father’s sister
(B) Any girl of class B marries his mother’s brother
(C) Any widower born class A marries his brother’s widow
(D) Any widower marries his wife’s sister
Ans. (B)
14. Any class B female can have?
I. Grand father born in class A
II. Grand mother born in class A
(A) Only I can be true
(B) Only II can be true
(C) Either I or II ca be true
(D) Neither I or II can be true
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 15—19): Trace out the missing number in each of the following questions—
15.          6, 8, 10, 11, 14, 14,?
(A) 116
(B) 18
(C) 21
(D) 25
Ans. (B)
16.          759, 871, 647, 1095?
(A) 199
(B) 1191
(C) 334
(D) 542
Ans. (A)
17.           15, 7,?, 14, 60, 28, 120
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 45
Ans. (C)
18.          13, 15, 15, 17, 17, 17, ?
(A) 21
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 19
Ans. (D)
19.              1, 1, 2, 4, 3, ?, 4, 16
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 20—24): These questions consist of two parts. The first has some specific relationship between two words. For establishing same relation in the second part, select an appropriate word from the given alternatives.
20. Food : Eat : :Water:?
(A) Swallow
(B) Drink
(C) Flow
(D) Fire
Ans. (B)
21. Teacher: Students: Doctor:?
(A) Medicine
(B) Patients
(C) Dispensary
(D) Hospital
Ans. (B)
22. Butter: Bread : : Bark: ?
(A) Skin
(B) Shed
(C) Tree
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
23. Refrigerator: Cool: : Oven:?
(A) Cook
(B) Warm
(C) Heat
(D) Kitchen
Ans. (B)
24. Coal: Engine: : Wax:?
(A) Lamp
(B) Bulb
(C) Torch
(D) Candle
Ans. (D)
25. If A = 2, B = 3 and C = 4 and so on, which word do the numbers 9, 2, 15, 5 represent?
(A) HAND
(B) HARD
(C) HARM
(D) BAND
Ans. (A)

General Knowledge Practice paper for ICAR ASRB Assistants preliminary exam


General Knowledge Practice paper for ICAR ASRB Assistants preliminary exam
ICAR Assistant Recruitment Vacancies Test Sample Papers
Practice paper GK for Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board ASRB Assistants
1. The climate of a place depends on several things, four of which are given below. Which of these is most important?
A. Distance from sea
B. Direction of wind
C. Latitude
D. Ocean streams
Ans:-C
2. If a person in the western hemisphere crosses the International Dateline on April 9, what will be the date when he reaches the eastern hemisphere?
A. April 9
B. April 10
C. April 8
D. April 11.
Ans:-C
3. Which of the following States borders the maximum number of States?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Assam
D. Haryana
Ans:-C
4. Which of the following sports activities was organized in India in 1982?
A. Olympic Games
B. Common Wealth Games
C. Asian Games
D. None of these
Ans:-C
5. The acronym INSAT stands for:
A. India Satellite
B. Indian National Satellite
C. Indian National Salt Training
D. None of these
Ans:-B
6. CSIR is related with—
A. Agricultural research
B. Industrial research
C. Defence research organisation
D. Road research
Ans:-B
7. Lunar eclipse occurs when
A. The Sun comes in between the Moon and the Earth
B. the Moon comes in between the Earth and the Sun
C. the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon
D. None of the above
Ans:-C
8. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is located at
A. Zenewa
B. Hague
C. Paris
D. London
Ans:-B
9. The chemical formula of Baking Soda is
A. Na2CO3.10H20
B. NaHCO3
C. Na2CO3.H20
D. NH4CI
Ans:-B
10. Which one of the following is used to stop bleeding?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin K
Ans:-D
11. Rober’s Cup is associated with
A. Tennis
B. Football
C. Volleyball
D. Basket ball
Ans:-B
12. Match the following
A. Tehri Dam 1. Ganga
B. SardarSarovar 2. Vias and Satluj
C. Indira Gandhi Canal 3. Narmada
D. NagarjunaSagar 4. Krishna
5. Bhagirathi
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 5 3 2 4
B. 5 3 2 1
C. 5 3 4 2
D. 5 3 1 2
Ans:-A
13. Normal telephone line used for internet utility is called
(a) Voice Portal
(b) Voice Line
(c) Voice Net
(d) Voice Telephone
Ans:-B
14. The abbreviation SITE stands for:
(a) South Indian Trade Estate
(b). State Institute of Technology and Engineering
(c) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(d) System for international Technology and Engineering S
Ans:-C
15. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which of the following countries?
A. Australia
B. Cuba
C. Ghana
D. Philippines
Ans:-A
16. The association of sea anemone and hermit crab is called as
A. Mutualism
B. parasitism
C. symbiosis
D. commensalisms
Ans:-D
17. Shannon – Weaver index is used to indicate
A. Biodiversity
B. Air pollution level
C. Water pollution
D. Importance of species
Ans:-A
18. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
A. Sulphur
B. Selenium
C. Bromium
D. Phosphorus
Ans:-A
19. Consider the following statements:
1. In November, 2006 DRDO successfully conducted the Interception test using Prithvi II missile.B.
2. Prithvi II is a surface to- surface missile and -can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks.
Which of the statements, given above is a correct
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:-A
20. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (www)?
A. Edward Kasner
B. Bill Gates
C. Tim Burners Lee
D. Ajim Premji
Ans:-C
21. Sometimes secondary pollutants like ozone PAN (proxy acyl nitrate) HNO3 H2 SO4 formed from primary pollutants are more toxic than primary pollutants. This phenomenon of increased toxicity in pollutants is called
(a) Synergism
(b) Green house effect
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Biomagnifications
Ans:-A
22. When and where the Mumbai and KoIkata stations inaugurated by the India Broadcasting Company
(a) 1927
(b) 1925
(c) 1928
(d) 1926
Ans:-A
23. Acid rain is caused by sulphur oxides, nitrogen oxides and hydrochloric acid which are produced by industries, automobiles and Thermal power plants using Fossil Fuels.It causes.
(a) Death of fish due to clogging of their gills by exudation of large amount of mucus caused by solubility and availability of toxic metals like aluminium
(b) Defoliation chlorosis, necrosis of plant foliage
(c) Leaching of mineral salts in soil and decolourisation of red stone of Redfort
(d) All the above
Ans:-D
24. Maximum threat to the world is from
(a) Water Pollution
(b) Soil erosion
(c) Ozone hole
(d) Global warming
Ans:-C
25. The comparative study of communication and automatic control processes in mechanical or electronic systems, e.g machines or computers and biological systems, e.g the nervous system of animals, especially humans and birds is termed as
(a) Retrieval of information
(b) Analysis of mutually accepted terms
(c). Cybernetics
(d) Planned and compilled study
Ans:-C
26. In which .year was ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1969
Ans:-D
27. If the green house effect becomes real and melts Polar ice, which one Of the following regions will first disappear under water.
(a) Islands of Kiribati
(b) Mauritius
(c) Maldives
(d) Hawaie Island
Ans:-A
28. Which pollutant gas is released by cud chewing cattle.
(a) CO
(b) CH4
(c) NO2
(d) CO2
Ans:-B
29. Where is the memorial for unknown soldiers?
A. Gate way of India
B. India Gate
C. Tirmurti
D. Jalianwala Bagh
Ans:-B
30. Who was not a contemporary of Tughlaq?
A. Amir Khusroe
B. Ziyauddin Barani
C. Ainul Mulk Multani
D. Bahlol Lodhi
Ans:-D
31. Which Governor General declared ‘Sari’ illegal and punishable by court?
A. ‘William Bentinck
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Reading
D. Lord Ripon
Ans:-A
32. Gandhiji has written his autobiography in which language?
A. Hindi
B. Marathi
C. English
D. Gujarati
Ans:-D
33. The quorum required in the Rajya Sabha is—
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 160
Ans:-A
34. Which one of the following is set up by the Constitution of India?
A. Planning Commission
B. National Development Council
C. Zonal Councils
D. Powers of president
Ans:-D
35. Toda is a—
A. Tribes
B. Logo
C. Name
D. Game
Ans:-A
36. Netherlands’ Currency is—
A. Peso.
B. Pesata
C. Rupiab
D. Guilder’
Ans:-D
37. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. W.C. Bannerjee
B. A.O. Hume
C. Sardar Patel
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans:-B
38. Which temperature zone is known as the surplus zone?
A. Tropical
B. Temperate
C. Polar
D. All of these
Ans:-A
39. Subroto Cup is related to—
A. Badminton
B. Hockey
C. Football
D. Polo
Ans:-C
40. Large ‘deposits of uranium are found in—
A. Canada
B. USA.
C. Australia
D. India
Ans:-A
41. Tiger Wood is related to—.
A. Polo
B. Snooker
C. Golf
D. Tennis
Ans:-C
42. Indira Gold Cup is given in—
A. Football
B. Hockey
C. Cricket
D. Swimming
Ans:-B
43. When did. Indian Hockey Team win gold medal in Olympic last?
A. 1988
B. 1980
C. 1984
D. 1976
Ans:-B
44. Which is called the King of Fruits?
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Mango
D. Pomegranate
Ans:-C
45. National Films Awards were instituted in the year—
A. 1950
B. 1954
C. 1961
D. 1969
Ans:-B
46. The. Indian Constitution makes India
A. Federal
B. Unitary
C. Rigid
D. Partly unitary Partly Fedral
Ans:-D
47. In which ocean is the Cromwell current found?
A. Pacific ocean
B. Atlantic ocean
C. Indian ocean
D. Arctic ocean
Ans:-A
48. Which one of the following rivers has its source outside the Indian Territory?
A Jhelum
B. Beas
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Ans:-D
49. Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials?
A. Rayon
B. Nylon
C. Polyester
D Polystyrene
Ans:-A
50. Chandrayan- 1 was launched from—
A. Bengaluru
B. Chennai
C. Sri Han Kota
D. None of these
Ans:-C

Monday, May 16, 2011

UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 Part 1


UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 part 1
CIVIL Engineering Objective questions
Solved objective civil engineering UPSC IES Paper
Indian Engineering Services UPS Solved Papers 2010
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted.
2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities.
3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2.
A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is
A 4 kN-m (Sagging)
B. 4 kN-m (Hogging)
C. 8 kN-m (Sagging)
D. Zero
3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the
Rankine load is equal to?
A 2500 kN
B. 1500 KN
C. 1000 kN
D. 600 kN
4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is
A. 2.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y co-ordinates of the centre of the Mohr’s circle are
A (0, 150)
B. (150, 0)
C. (—50, 0)
D. (50, 0)
6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise ?
A 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 20
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain.
2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities.
3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood.
2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood.
3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2and.3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
9. Consider the following statements
1. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
2. The resources are considered to be unlimited.
3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
10.
A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be .
A RA = —10 kN and RC = —15 kN
B. RA =10kN and RC=—55 kN
C. RA =—15kN and RC=—10kN
D. RA =15kN ànd RCc=—40kN
11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member
connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is
A 333kN
B. 253 kN
C. 238 kN
D. 210 kN
The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2and3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a
piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of
the pump is
A 2.8%
B. 3.2%
C. 3.6%
D. 4.0%
14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending:
1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section.
2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section.
3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the cross-section.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1,2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 2 only
15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column
A Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases and then decreases
D. Remains constant
16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases
A. Depth of neutral axis increases
B. Depth of neutral axis decreases
C. Depth of neutral axis does not change
D. Lever arm increases
17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence
A Moderate
B. Severe
C. Heavy
D. Zero
18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam
A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam
A to that of beam B is?
A.1/2
B. 1/4
C.2
D.4
19. Shear span is defined as the zone where
A. Bending moment is zero
B. Shear force is zero
C. Shear force is constant
D. Bending moment is constant
20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount “Delta”, then the rotation of the hinged end will be
A Delta/L
B 2Delta/L
C 3Delta/2L
D 4Delta/3L
Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A.’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At
B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length.
Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft.
22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse.
Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range.
23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams.
Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days.
24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix.
Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced.
25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased.
Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it.
26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads.
Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain.
27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming.
Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix.
28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of ‘structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods.
Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly.
2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment.
Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section.
30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.
Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures.
31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars.
Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more.
32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam.
Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.
33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities.
Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself.
34. Assertion A. : A ‘dummy’ job is assigned ‘zero’, time to perform.
Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship.
35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram.
Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate.
36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero.
37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined.
Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system.
38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit.
39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau prinéiple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure.
Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure.
40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams.
Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.
41. The use of ‘Concordant cables’ in prestressed continuous beams induces
A Initial support reactions
B. No initial support reactions
C. Excess cracking
D. Excess deflection
42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design?
A Degree of quality control of concrete
B. Workability of concrete
C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days
D. Initial setting time of cement
43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder
from left to right, is
A 112.2 kN-m
C. 136.8 kN-m
B. 96.6 kN-m
D. 105.8 kN-m
44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW?
A 25 *22/7
B. 20*22/7
C. 6O*22/7
D. 30*22/7
45.
For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE?
A 18
B. 36
C. 68
D. 136
46. Consider the following statements:
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal to zero selectively:
1. At support section at neutral fibre.
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre.
3. At mid span section at top fibre.
4. At support section at bottom fibre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
47. Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete.
2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
48. A solid shaft has length and diameter ‘Ls and ‘D’ respectively. A hollow shaft °C length Lh, external diameter ‘D’, and internal diameter ‘d’ respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is
49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A?
A 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D.10 m
50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is
A Always positive
B. Always negative
C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative
D. Zero
ANSWERS:
1A
2D
3D
4C
5B
6D
7D
8B
9C
10C
11D
12C
13D
14D
15C
16A
17A
18C
19C
20C
21B
22B
23C
24A
25A
26B
27C
28B
29A
30D
31A
32D
33A
34A
35#
36A
37A
38C
39B
40A
41B
42D
43D
44D
45D
46B
47C
48C
49C
50B



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